Interview questions and best responses
Attending an interview for a job you really want can be a nerve wrecking experience especially if you are unprepared. Luckily, Jobsite have created a list of typical interview questions and best responses so you need worry no longer!
The Basics
1. Tell me about yourself
Keep your answer to one or two minutes; don't ramble.
Do not go back to childhood experiences; just give a brief outline of where you are from and where you want to be going.
Use your CV introduction as a starting base.
Say only positive statements
2. What do you know about our company?
Show that you have done your research. Know what their products are, how big the company is, roughly what their annual revenue is, what reputation it has within the industry and on the street. Know the company's history, image, goal, and philosophy.
Project an informed interest which allows the interviewer to tell you some more detailed aspects about the company.
3. Why do you want to work for us?
Don't talk about what you want; first talk about their needs and what you can do for them.You wish to be part of their company: identify its strengths. You relish the challenge of solving their company problem/s. You can make a definite contribution to specific company goals.
4. What would you do for us? What can you do for us that someone else can't?
Talk about successful past experience where you have helped an employer solve a problem and relate this to the job being offered. Stay positive and don't be seen to criticize other candidates.
5. Which aspects of our position do you find the most attractive? Least attractive?
List three or more attractive factors and only one, minor unattractive factor. Aspects to pick up on could include; office location, company reputation, the chance to work with esteemed colleagues, training opportunities etc.
6. Why should we hire you?
Because of the knowledge, experience, abilities, and skills you possess. Be very positive and confident in your reply, not vague.
7. What do you look for in a job?
An opportunity to use my skills, to perform and to be recognized. The opportunity to develop further skills; throughout life we should be constantly learning. Relate your answer to the job for which you are applying e.g. "I enjoy a challenge and I believe this position would offer me that."
8. Please give me your definition of a ... (the position for which you are being interviewed) .
Keep it brief; actions and results oriented.
9. How long would it take you to make a meaningful contribution to our firm?
Very quickly after a little orientation and a brief period of adjustment.
10. How long would you stay with us?
As long as we both feel I'm contributing, achieving, growing etc.
Management and Experience Questions
11. What is your management style?
For example 'Management by Coaching and Development (MBCD)' where Managers see themselves primarily as employee trainers. 'Open door' is also a good one.
12. Are you a good manager? Give an example. Why do you feel you have top managerial potential?
Keep your answers achievement and task oriented. Emphasize management skills - planning, organizing, leadership, interpersonal, etc. Describe relevant personal traits.
13. What did you look for when you hired people in the past?
Skills, initiative, adaptability, team players.
14. Did you ever fire anyone? If so, what where the reasons and how did you handle it?
You have had experience with this and it worked out well. Describe how you spoke to the person and explained precisely but tactfully where they were underachieving.
15. What do you see as being the most difficult task in being a manager?
Getting things planned and done on time within the imposed constraints e.g. budget. Do not imply that these are insurmountable difficulties.
16. What is your biggest weakness as a manager?
Be honest but don't dwell on it and end on a positive note. Industry trend questions
17. Why are you leaving your present job?
No longer provides a suitable challenge, time to move on, I wish to move into .…(the area this company specializes in). Give a "group" answer if possible, e.g. our department was consolidated or eliminated.
18. How do you feel about leaving all your benefits?
You feel the challenge and satisfaction this new role will bring outweighs the benefits lost.
19. Describe what you feel to be the perfect working environment.
Where people are treated as fairly and equally as possible. Don't mention 'naked Fridays!'
20. How would you evaluate your present firm?
An excellent company which afforded me many fine experiences.
Quantifying Your Experience and Accomplishments
21. Have you helped increase sales? Profits? How?
Imply that you have done so on many occasions, and then concentrate on describing one in detail. Quote facts and figures.
22. Have you helped reduce costs? How?
Imply that you have done so on many occasions, and then concentrate on describing one in detail. Quote facts and figures.
23. How much money did you ever account for?
Be specific and recount a particular contract with facts and figures.
24. How many people did you supervise on your last job?
Be specific - the more the better, but don't exaggerate.
25. Do you like working with figures more than words?
Be honest but positive. Make it clear that you are confident and comfortable working with both. Don't say "depends on the figures -nudge nudge wink wink!"
26. In your current or last position, what features did you like the most? Least?
Relate your response to what the new job can offer. Don't dwell on the negative aspects.
27. In your current or last position, what are or were your five most significant accomplishments?
You could refer to the key accomplishments already identified in your CV. Keep it brief and use statistics if appropriate. Your work style and habits
28. If I spoke with your previous boss, what would he say are your greatest strengths and weaknesses?
Emphasize skills - don't be overly negative about your weaknesses; it's always safe to identify a lack of a skill or experience as a shortcoming rather than a personal characteristic.
29. Can you work under pressures, deadlines, etc.?
Yes. Quite simply, it is a way of life in business.
30. In your present position, what problems have you identified that had previously been overlooked?
Keep it brief and be sure to say how you overcame the problems.
31. Don't you feel you might be better off in a different size company? Different type company?
Depends on the job - elaborate slightly. Reiterate how your skills, qualifications and previous experience lend themselves itself to the job you are applying for with this company.
32. How do you resolve conflict on a project team?
First you would discuss issues privately and tactfully. If the problem is not resolved then action would need to be taken which, in a severe case, could mean removing a member of the team. You would operate within the company's disciplinary policy.
33. What was the most difficult decision you ever had to make?
Attempt to relate your response to the prospective employment situation. Do not mention trivial issues
Salary questions
34. How much are you looking for?
Answer with a question, i.e., "What is the salary range for similar jobs in your company?"
If they don't answer, then give a range of what you understand you are worth in the marketplace. You could also use your current salary as a base and say that you are looking to improve on this but be careful in case that lowers the wage they offer.
35. How much do you expect, if we offer this position to you?
Be careful; the market value of the job may be the key answer e.g., "My understanding is that a job like the one you're describing may be in the range of ....”
36. What kind of salary are you worth?
Have a specific figure in mind... don't be hesitant. Avoid joking and saying that they couldn't afford it!
Personality questions
37. What was the last book you read? Movie you saw? Sporting event you attended?
Talk about books, sports or films that represent balance in your life. Stick to something fairly mainstream or classic.
38. How would you describe your own personality?
Balanced. Fair, honest, reliable, friendly, outgoing, etc.
39. What are your strong points?
Present at least three and relate them to the interviewing company and job opening.
Tailor your answer to meet the needs of the employer e.g. "I see myself as a goal-orientated individual who in my previous role achieved above projected results."
40. What are your weak points?
Don't say you haven't any.
Try not to cite personal characteristics as weaknesses, but be ready to have one if the interviewer presses.
Try to transform your response and the question into a strength. "I'm the kind of person who likes challenges and gets involved. Some people may see that as butting in, but I'm sure it could be looked at as a strength because I like to make sure the job gets done correctly."
Thursday, August 21, 2008
Wednesday, August 20, 2008
BHEL 2006 PLACEMENT PAPER
BHEL 2006 PLACEMENT PAPER
control system-
1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)
Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-
1&3
Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4
For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)
The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a.) 150 samples per second
b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second
d.) 350 samples per second
In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
a.) 34 and 106
b.) 52. And 88
c.) 106 and 142
d.) 34 and 142
Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a.) Pulse radar
b.) Tracking radar
c.) MTI radar
d.) Mono pulse radar
The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing
Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
a.) reflection from the ionosphere
b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground
d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.
Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b). increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.
When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.)An inductance at the load
c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.)none of the above
As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –
a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.
When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter
Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off
The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.)Transformer coupling
A superconductor is a –
a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
a) 8.05 pF
b) 10.05pF
c.) 16.01pF
d.) 20.01pF
The Q of a radio coil –
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75
The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)
Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
a.) -2000C to 5000C
b.) 00C to 5000C
c.) 5000C to 12000C
d.) 12000C to 25000C
RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
a.) Class 'A'
b.) Class 'b'
c.) Class 'C'
d.) None
The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
a.) High positive
b.) High negative
c.) Low positive
d.) Zero
control system-
1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)
Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-
1&3
Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4
For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)
The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a.) 150 samples per second
b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second
d.) 350 samples per second
In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
a.) 34 and 106
b.) 52. And 88
c.) 106 and 142
d.) 34 and 142
Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a.) Pulse radar
b.) Tracking radar
c.) MTI radar
d.) Mono pulse radar
The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing
Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
a.) reflection from the ionosphere
b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground
d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.
Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b). increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.
When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.)An inductance at the load
c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.)none of the above
As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –
a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.
When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter
Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off
The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.)Transformer coupling
A superconductor is a –
a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
a) 8.05 pF
b) 10.05pF
c.) 16.01pF
d.) 20.01pF
The Q of a radio coil –
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75
The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)
Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
a.) -2000C to 5000C
b.) 00C to 5000C
c.) 5000C to 12000C
d.) 12000C to 25000C
RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
a.) Class 'A'
b.) Class 'b'
c.) Class 'C'
d.) None
The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
a.) High positive
b.) High negative
c.) Low positive
d.) Zero
Tuesday, August 19, 2008
3i Infotech Latest Placement Paper
3i Infotech Latest Placement Paper
1> In a class composed of x girls and y boys what part of the class is composed of girls
A.y/(x + y) B.x/xy C.x/(x + y) D.y/xy (Ans.C)
2> What is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a 4-gallon can of cream(2 pt.=1 qt. and 4 qt.=1 gal)
A.16 B.24 C.30 D.64 (Ans.D)
3> If the operation,^ is defined by the equation x ^ y = 2x + y,what is the value of a in 2 ^ a = a ^ 3
A.0 B.1 C.-1 D.4 (Ans.B)
4> A coffee shop blends 2 kinds of coffee,putting in 2 parts of a 33p. a gm. grade to 1 part of a 24p. a gm.If the mixture is changed to 1 part of the 33p. a gm. to 2 parts of the less expensive grade,how much will the shop save in blending 100 gms.
A.Rs.90 B.Rs.1.00 C.Rs.3.00 D.Rs.8.00 (Ans.C)
5> There are 200 questions on a 3 hr examination.Among these questions are 50 mathematics problems.It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each maths problem as for each other question.How many minutes should be spent on mathematics problems
A.36 B.72 C.60 D.100 (Ans.B)
6> In a group of 15,7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek, and 3 have not studied either.How many of these studied both Latin and Greek
A.0 B.3 C.4 D.5 (Ans.B)
7> If 13 = 13w/(1-w) ,then (2w)2 =
A.1/4 B.1/2 C.1 D.2 (Ans.C)
8> If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then
(A) b <> a (C) b = a (D) b >= a (Ans. A)
9> In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?
A. 12 B. 20 C. 24 D. 30 (Ans. C)
10> M men agree to purchase a gift for Rs. D. If three men drop out how much more will each have to contribute towards the purchase of the gift/
A. D/(M-3) B. MD/3 C. M/(D-3) D. 3D/(M2-3M) (Ans. D)
11> A company contracts to paint 3 houses. Mr.Brown can paint a house in 6 days while Mr.Black would take 8 days and Mr.Blue 12 days. After 8 days Mr.Brown goes on vacation and Mr. Black begins to work for a period of 6 days. How many days will it take Mr.Blue to complete the contract?
A. 7 B. 8 C. 11 D. 12 (Ans.C)
12> 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station travelling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train was?
A. 30 B. 40 C.58 D. 60 (Ans. B)
13> If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ?
A.-5 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 (Ans. D)
14> There are 5 red shoes, 4 green shoes. If one draw randomly a shoe what is the probability of getting a red shoe (Ans 5c1/ 9c1)
15>What is the selling price of a car? If the cost of the car is Rs.60 and a profit of 10% over selling price is earned (Ans: Rs 66/-)
16> 1/3 of girls , 1/2 of boys go to canteen .What factor and total number of classmates go to canteen.
Ans: Cannot be determined.
17> The price of a product is reduced by 30% . By what percentage should it be increased to make it 100% (Ans: 42.857%)
18> There is a square of side 6cm . A circle is inscribed inside the square. Find the ratio of the area of circle to square. (Ans. 11/14 )
19> There are two candles of equal lengths and of different thickness. The thicker one lasts of six hours. The thinner 2 hours less than the thicker one. Ramesh lights the two candles at the same time. When he went to bed he saw the thicker one is twice the length of the thinner one. How long ago did Ramesh light the two candles .
Ans: 3 hours.
I20> f M/N = 6/5,then 3M+2N = ?
21> If p/q = 5/4 , then 2p+q= ?
22> If PQRST is a parallelogram what it the ratio of triangle PQS & parallelogram PQRST . (Ans: 1:2 )
23> The cost of an item is Rs 12.60. If the profit is 10% over selling price what is the selling price ?
(Ans: Rs 13.86/- )
24> There are 6 red shoes & 4 green shoes . If two of red shoes are drawn what is the probability of getting red shoes (Ans: 6c2/10c2)
25> To 15 lts of water containing 20% alcohol, we add 5 lts of pure water. What is % alcohol. (Ans : 15% )
26> A worker is paid Rs.20/- for a full days work. He works 1,1/3,2/3,1/8.3/4 days in a week. What is the total amount paid for that worker ? (Ans : 57.50 )
27> If the value of x lies between 0 & 1 which of the following is the largest?
(a) x b) x2 (c) รข€“x (d) 1/x (Ans : (d) )
28> If the total distance of a journey is 120 km .If one goes by 60 kmph and comes back at 40kmph what is the average speed during the journey? Ans: 48kmph
29> A school has 30% students from Maharashtra .Out of these 20% are Bombey students. Find the total percentage of Bombay? (Ans: 6%)
30> An equilateral triangle of sides 3 inch each is given. How many equilateral triangles of side 1 inch can be formed from it? (Ans: 9)
31> If A/B = 3/5,then 15A = ? (Ans : 9B)
32> Each side of a rectangle is increased by 100% .By what percentage does the area increase? (Ans : 300%)
33> Perimeter of the back wheel = 9 feet, front wheel = 7 feet on a certain distance, the front wheel gets 10 revolutions more than the back wheel .What is the distance? Ans : 315 feet
34> Perimeter of front wheel =30, back wheel = 20. If front wheel revolves 240 times. How many revolutions will the back wheel take? Ans: 360 times
35> 20% of a 6 litre solution and 60% of 4 litre solution are mixed. What percentage of the mixture of solution
(Ans: 36%)
36>City A's population is 68000, decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year. City B having population 42000 is increasing at a rate of 120 people per year. In how many years both the cities will have same population? (Ans: 130 years)
37>Two cars are 15 kms apart. One is turning at a speed of 50kmph and the other at 40kmph . How much time will it take for the two cars to meet? (Ans: 3/2 hours)
38> A person wants to buy 3 paise and 5 paise stamps costing exactly one rupee. If he buys which of the following number of stamps he won't able to buy 3 paise stamps. Ans: 9
39>There are 12 boys and 15 girls, How many different dancing groups can be formed with 2 boys and 3 girls.
40> Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3
(a) 22/62 (b) 15/46 (c) 2/3 (d) 1 (Ans: (b))
41> There are two circles, one circle is inscribed and another circle is circumscribed over a square. What is the ratio of area of inner to outer circle? Ans: 1 : 2
42> Three types of tea the a,b,c costs Rs. 95/kg,100/kg and70/kg respectively.How many kgs of each should be blended to produce 100 kg of mixture worth Rs.90/kg, given that the quantities of band c are equal
a)70,15,15 b)50,25,25 c)60,20,20 d)40,30,30 (Ans. (b))
43> In a class, except 18 all are above 50 years.15 are below 50 years of age. How many people are there
(a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 36 (d) none of these. (Ans. (d))
44> If a boat is moving in upstream with velocity of 14 km/hr and goes downstream with a velocity of 40 km/hr, then what is the speed of the stream ?
(a) 13 km/hr (b) 26 km/hr (c) 34 km/hr (d) none of these (Ans. A)
45> Find the value of ( 0.75 * 0.75 * 0.75 - 0.001 ) / ( 0.75 * 0.75 - 0.075 + 0.01)
(a) 0.845 (b) 1.908 (c) 2.312 (d) 0.001 (Ans. A)
46> A can have a piece of work done in 8 days, B can work three times faster than the A, C can work five times faster than A. How many days will they take to do the work together ?
(a) 3 days (b) 8/9 days (c) 4 days (d) can't say (Ans. B)
47> A car travels a certain distance taking 7 hrs in forward journey, during the return journey increased speed 12km/hr takes the times 5 hrs. What is the distance traveled
(a) 210 kms (b) 30 kms (c) 20 kms (c) none of these (Ans. B)
48> Instead of multiplying a number by 7, the number is divided by 7. What is the percentage of error obtained ?
49> Find (7x + 4y ) / (x-2y) if x/2y = 3/2 ?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) data insufficient (Ans. C)
50> A man buys 12 lts of liquid which contains 20% of the liquid and the rest is water. He then mixes it with 10 lts of another mixture with 30% of liquid. What is the % of water in the new mixture?
51> If a man buys 1 lt of milk for Rs.12 and mixes it with 20% water and sells it for Rs.15, then what is the percentage of gain?
52> Pipe A can fill a tank in 30 mins and Pipe B can fill it in 28 mins.If 3/4th of the tank is filled by Pipe B alone and both are opened, how much time is required by both the pipes to fill the tank completely ?
53> If on an item a company gives 25% discount, they earn 25% profit. If they now give 10% discount then what is the profit percentage.
(a) 40% (b) 55% (c) 35% (d) 30% (Ans. D)
54> A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?
(a) 110 men (b) 130 men (c) 100 men (d) none of these (Ans. A)
55> In simple interest what sum amounts of Rs.1120/- in 4 years and Rs.1200/- in 5 years ?
(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 600 (c) Rs. 800 (d) Rs. 900 (Ans. C)
56> If a sum of money compound annually amounts of thrice itself in 3 years. In how many years will it become 9 times itself.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12 (Ans A)
57> Two trains move in the same direction at 50 kmph and 32 kmph respectively. A man in the slower train observes the 15 seconds elapse before the faster train completely passes by him. What is the length of faster train ?
(a) 100m (b) 75m (c) 120m (d) 50m (Ans B)
58> How many mashes are there in 1 squrare meter of wire gauge if each mesh
is 8mm long and 5mm wide ?
(a) 2500 (b) 25000 (c) 250 (d) 250000 (Ans B)
x% of y is y% of ?
(a) x/y (b) 2y (c) x (d) can't be determined Ans. C
59> The price of sugar increases by 20%, by what % should a housewife reduce the consumption of sugar so that expenditure on sugar can be same as before ?
(a) 15% (b) 16.66% (c) 12% (d) 9% (Ans B)
60> A man spends half of his salary on household expenses, 1/4th for rent, 1/5th for travel expenses, the man deposits the rest in a bank. If his monthly deposits in the bank amount 50, what is his monthly salary ?
(a) Rs.500 (b) Rs.1500 (c) Rs.1000 (d) Rs. 900 (Ans C)
61> The population of a city increases @ 4% p.a. There is an additional annual increase of 4% of the population due to the influx of job seekers, find the % increase in population after 2 years ?
62> The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3:2 Out of these 10% the boys and 25% of girls are scholarship holders. % of students who are not scholarship holders.?
63> 15 men take 21 days of 8 hrs. each to do a piece of work. How many days of 6 hrs. each would it take for 21 women if 3 women do as much work as 2 men?
(a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 19 (d) 29 (Ans. A)
64> A cylinder is 6 cms in diameter and 6 cms in height. If spheres of the same size are made from the material obtained, what is the diameter of each sphere?
(a) 5 cms (b) 2 cms (c) 3 cms (d) 4 cms (Ans C)
65> A rectangular plank (2)1/2 meters wide can be placed so that it is on either side of the diagonal of a square shown below. (Figure is not available) What is the area of the plank? ( Ans :7*(2)1/2 )
66> What is the smallest number by which 2880 must be divided in order to make it into a perfect square ?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (Ans. C)
67> A father is 30 years older than his son however he will be only thrice as old as the son after 5 years what is father's present age ?
(a) 40 yrs (b) 30 yrs (c) 50 yrs (d) none of these (Ans. A)
68> An article sold at a profit of 20% if both the cost price and selling price would be Rs.20/- the profit would be 10% more. What is the cost price of that article?
69> If an item costs Rs.3 in '99 and Rs.203 in '00.What is the % increase in price?
(a) 200/3 % (b) 200/6 % (c) 100% (d) none of these (Ans. A)
70> 5 men or 8 women do equal amount of work in a day. a job requires 3 men and 5 women to finish the job in 10 days how many woman are required to finish the job in 14 days.
a) 10 b) 7 c) 6 d) 12 (Ans 7)
71> A simple interest amount of rs 5000 for six month is rs 200. what is the anual rate of interest?
a) 10% b) 6% c) 8% d) 9% (Ans 8%)
72> In objective test a correct ans score 4 marks and on a wrong ans 2 marks are ---. a student score 480 marks from 150 question. how many ans were correct?
a) 120 b) 130 c) 110 d) 150 (Ans130)
73> An article sold at amount of 50% the net sale price is rs 425 .what is the list price of the article?
a) 500 b) 488 c) 480 d) 510 (Ans 500)
74> A man leaves office daily at 7pm A driver with car comes from his home to pick him from office and bring back home. One day he gets free at 5:30 and instead of waiting for driver he starts walking towards home. In the way he meets the car and returns home on car He reaches home 20 minutes earlier than usual. In how much time does the man reach home usually?? (Ans. 1hr 20min)
75> A works thrice as much as B. If A takes 60 days less than B to do a work then find the number of days it would take to complete the work if both work together?
Ans. 22½days
76> How many 1's are there in the binary form of 8*1024 + 3*64 + 3 Ans. 4
77> In a digital circuit which was to implement (A B) + (A)XOR(B), the designer implements (A B) (A)XOR(B) What is the probability of error in it ?
78> A boy has Rs 2. He wins or loses Re 1 at a time If he wins he gets Re 1 and if he loses the game he loses Re 1.He can loose only 5 times. He is out of the game if he earns Rs 5.Find the number of ways in which this is possible? (Ans. 16)
79> If there are 1024*1280 pixels on a screen and each pixel can have around 16 million colors. Find the memory required for this? (Ans. 4MB)
80> On a particular day A and B decide that they would either speak the truth or will lie. C asks A whether he is speaking truth or lying? He answers and B listens to what he said. C then asks B what A has said B says "A says that he is a liar" What is B speaking ?(a) Truth (b) Lie (c) Truth when A lies (d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (b)
81> What is the angle between the two hands of a clock when time is 8:30
Ans. 75(approx)
82> A student is ranked 13th from right and 8th from left. How many students are there in totality ?
83> A man walks east and turns right and then from there to his left and then 45degrees to his right.In which direction did he go (Ans. North west)
84> A student gets 70% in one subject, 80% in the other. To get an overall of 75% how much should get in third subject.
85> A man shows his friend a woman sitting in a park and says that she the daughter of my grandmother's only son.What is the relation between the two
Ans. Daughter
86> How many squares with sides 1/2 inch long are needed to cover a rectangle that is 4 ft long and 6 ft wide
(a) 24 (b) 96 (c) 3456 (d) 13824 (e) 14266
87> If a=2/3b , b=2/3c, and c=2/3d what part of d is b/
(a) 8/27 (b) 4/9 (c) 2/3 (d) 75% (e) 4/3 Ans. (b)
88> 2598Successive discounts of 20% and 15% are equal to a single discount of
(a) 30% (b) 32% (c) 34% (d) 35% (e) 36 Ans. (b)
89> The petrol tank of an automobile can hold g liters.If a liters was removed when the tank was full, what part of the full tank was removed?
(a)g-a (b)g/a (c) a/g (d) (g-a)/a (e) (g-a)/g (Ans. (c))
90> If x/y=4 and y is not '0' what % of x is 2x-y
(a)150% (b)175% (c)200% (d)250% (Ans. (b))
1> In a class composed of x girls and y boys what part of the class is composed of girls
A.y/(x + y) B.x/xy C.x/(x + y) D.y/xy (Ans.C)
2> What is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a 4-gallon can of cream(2 pt.=1 qt. and 4 qt.=1 gal)
A.16 B.24 C.30 D.64 (Ans.D)
3> If the operation,^ is defined by the equation x ^ y = 2x + y,what is the value of a in 2 ^ a = a ^ 3
A.0 B.1 C.-1 D.4 (Ans.B)
4> A coffee shop blends 2 kinds of coffee,putting in 2 parts of a 33p. a gm. grade to 1 part of a 24p. a gm.If the mixture is changed to 1 part of the 33p. a gm. to 2 parts of the less expensive grade,how much will the shop save in blending 100 gms.
A.Rs.90 B.Rs.1.00 C.Rs.3.00 D.Rs.8.00 (Ans.C)
5> There are 200 questions on a 3 hr examination.Among these questions are 50 mathematics problems.It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each maths problem as for each other question.How many minutes should be spent on mathematics problems
A.36 B.72 C.60 D.100 (Ans.B)
6> In a group of 15,7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek, and 3 have not studied either.How many of these studied both Latin and Greek
A.0 B.3 C.4 D.5 (Ans.B)
7> If 13 = 13w/(1-w) ,then (2w)2 =
A.1/4 B.1/2 C.1 D.2 (Ans.C)
8> If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then
(A) b <> a (C) b = a (D) b >= a (Ans. A)
9> In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?
A. 12 B. 20 C. 24 D. 30 (Ans. C)
10> M men agree to purchase a gift for Rs. D. If three men drop out how much more will each have to contribute towards the purchase of the gift/
A. D/(M-3) B. MD/3 C. M/(D-3) D. 3D/(M2-3M) (Ans. D)
11> A company contracts to paint 3 houses. Mr.Brown can paint a house in 6 days while Mr.Black would take 8 days and Mr.Blue 12 days. After 8 days Mr.Brown goes on vacation and Mr. Black begins to work for a period of 6 days. How many days will it take Mr.Blue to complete the contract?
A. 7 B. 8 C. 11 D. 12 (Ans.C)
12> 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station travelling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train was?
A. 30 B. 40 C.58 D. 60 (Ans. B)
13> If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ?
A.-5 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 (Ans. D)
14> There are 5 red shoes, 4 green shoes. If one draw randomly a shoe what is the probability of getting a red shoe (Ans 5c1/ 9c1)
15>What is the selling price of a car? If the cost of the car is Rs.60 and a profit of 10% over selling price is earned (Ans: Rs 66/-)
16> 1/3 of girls , 1/2 of boys go to canteen .What factor and total number of classmates go to canteen.
Ans: Cannot be determined.
17> The price of a product is reduced by 30% . By what percentage should it be increased to make it 100% (Ans: 42.857%)
18> There is a square of side 6cm . A circle is inscribed inside the square. Find the ratio of the area of circle to square. (Ans. 11/14 )
19> There are two candles of equal lengths and of different thickness. The thicker one lasts of six hours. The thinner 2 hours less than the thicker one. Ramesh lights the two candles at the same time. When he went to bed he saw the thicker one is twice the length of the thinner one. How long ago did Ramesh light the two candles .
Ans: 3 hours.
I20> f M/N = 6/5,then 3M+2N = ?
21> If p/q = 5/4 , then 2p+q= ?
22> If PQRST is a parallelogram what it the ratio of triangle PQS & parallelogram PQRST . (Ans: 1:2 )
23> The cost of an item is Rs 12.60. If the profit is 10% over selling price what is the selling price ?
(Ans: Rs 13.86/- )
24> There are 6 red shoes & 4 green shoes . If two of red shoes are drawn what is the probability of getting red shoes (Ans: 6c2/10c2)
25> To 15 lts of water containing 20% alcohol, we add 5 lts of pure water. What is % alcohol. (Ans : 15% )
26> A worker is paid Rs.20/- for a full days work. He works 1,1/3,2/3,1/8.3/4 days in a week. What is the total amount paid for that worker ? (Ans : 57.50 )
27> If the value of x lies between 0 & 1 which of the following is the largest?
(a) x b) x2 (c) รข€“x (d) 1/x (Ans : (d) )
28> If the total distance of a journey is 120 km .If one goes by 60 kmph and comes back at 40kmph what is the average speed during the journey? Ans: 48kmph
29> A school has 30% students from Maharashtra .Out of these 20% are Bombey students. Find the total percentage of Bombay? (Ans: 6%)
30> An equilateral triangle of sides 3 inch each is given. How many equilateral triangles of side 1 inch can be formed from it? (Ans: 9)
31> If A/B = 3/5,then 15A = ? (Ans : 9B)
32> Each side of a rectangle is increased by 100% .By what percentage does the area increase? (Ans : 300%)
33> Perimeter of the back wheel = 9 feet, front wheel = 7 feet on a certain distance, the front wheel gets 10 revolutions more than the back wheel .What is the distance? Ans : 315 feet
34> Perimeter of front wheel =30, back wheel = 20. If front wheel revolves 240 times. How many revolutions will the back wheel take? Ans: 360 times
35> 20% of a 6 litre solution and 60% of 4 litre solution are mixed. What percentage of the mixture of solution
(Ans: 36%)
36>City A's population is 68000, decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year. City B having population 42000 is increasing at a rate of 120 people per year. In how many years both the cities will have same population? (Ans: 130 years)
37>Two cars are 15 kms apart. One is turning at a speed of 50kmph and the other at 40kmph . How much time will it take for the two cars to meet? (Ans: 3/2 hours)
38> A person wants to buy 3 paise and 5 paise stamps costing exactly one rupee. If he buys which of the following number of stamps he won't able to buy 3 paise stamps. Ans: 9
39>There are 12 boys and 15 girls, How many different dancing groups can be formed with 2 boys and 3 girls.
40> Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3
(a) 22/62 (b) 15/46 (c) 2/3 (d) 1 (Ans: (b))
41> There are two circles, one circle is inscribed and another circle is circumscribed over a square. What is the ratio of area of inner to outer circle? Ans: 1 : 2
42> Three types of tea the a,b,c costs Rs. 95/kg,100/kg and70/kg respectively.How many kgs of each should be blended to produce 100 kg of mixture worth Rs.90/kg, given that the quantities of band c are equal
a)70,15,15 b)50,25,25 c)60,20,20 d)40,30,30 (Ans. (b))
43> In a class, except 18 all are above 50 years.15 are below 50 years of age. How many people are there
(a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 36 (d) none of these. (Ans. (d))
44> If a boat is moving in upstream with velocity of 14 km/hr and goes downstream with a velocity of 40 km/hr, then what is the speed of the stream ?
(a) 13 km/hr (b) 26 km/hr (c) 34 km/hr (d) none of these (Ans. A)
45> Find the value of ( 0.75 * 0.75 * 0.75 - 0.001 ) / ( 0.75 * 0.75 - 0.075 + 0.01)
(a) 0.845 (b) 1.908 (c) 2.312 (d) 0.001 (Ans. A)
46> A can have a piece of work done in 8 days, B can work three times faster than the A, C can work five times faster than A. How many days will they take to do the work together ?
(a) 3 days (b) 8/9 days (c) 4 days (d) can't say (Ans. B)
47> A car travels a certain distance taking 7 hrs in forward journey, during the return journey increased speed 12km/hr takes the times 5 hrs. What is the distance traveled
(a) 210 kms (b) 30 kms (c) 20 kms (c) none of these (Ans. B)
48> Instead of multiplying a number by 7, the number is divided by 7. What is the percentage of error obtained ?
49> Find (7x + 4y ) / (x-2y) if x/2y = 3/2 ?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) data insufficient (Ans. C)
50> A man buys 12 lts of liquid which contains 20% of the liquid and the rest is water. He then mixes it with 10 lts of another mixture with 30% of liquid. What is the % of water in the new mixture?
51> If a man buys 1 lt of milk for Rs.12 and mixes it with 20% water and sells it for Rs.15, then what is the percentage of gain?
52> Pipe A can fill a tank in 30 mins and Pipe B can fill it in 28 mins.If 3/4th of the tank is filled by Pipe B alone and both are opened, how much time is required by both the pipes to fill the tank completely ?
53> If on an item a company gives 25% discount, they earn 25% profit. If they now give 10% discount then what is the profit percentage.
(a) 40% (b) 55% (c) 35% (d) 30% (Ans. D)
54> A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?
(a) 110 men (b) 130 men (c) 100 men (d) none of these (Ans. A)
55> In simple interest what sum amounts of Rs.1120/- in 4 years and Rs.1200/- in 5 years ?
(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 600 (c) Rs. 800 (d) Rs. 900 (Ans. C)
56> If a sum of money compound annually amounts of thrice itself in 3 years. In how many years will it become 9 times itself.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12 (Ans A)
57> Two trains move in the same direction at 50 kmph and 32 kmph respectively. A man in the slower train observes the 15 seconds elapse before the faster train completely passes by him. What is the length of faster train ?
(a) 100m (b) 75m (c) 120m (d) 50m (Ans B)
58> How many mashes are there in 1 squrare meter of wire gauge if each mesh
is 8mm long and 5mm wide ?
(a) 2500 (b) 25000 (c) 250 (d) 250000 (Ans B)
x% of y is y% of ?
(a) x/y (b) 2y (c) x (d) can't be determined Ans. C
59> The price of sugar increases by 20%, by what % should a housewife reduce the consumption of sugar so that expenditure on sugar can be same as before ?
(a) 15% (b) 16.66% (c) 12% (d) 9% (Ans B)
60> A man spends half of his salary on household expenses, 1/4th for rent, 1/5th for travel expenses, the man deposits the rest in a bank. If his monthly deposits in the bank amount 50, what is his monthly salary ?
(a) Rs.500 (b) Rs.1500 (c) Rs.1000 (d) Rs. 900 (Ans C)
61> The population of a city increases @ 4% p.a. There is an additional annual increase of 4% of the population due to the influx of job seekers, find the % increase in population after 2 years ?
62> The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3:2 Out of these 10% the boys and 25% of girls are scholarship holders. % of students who are not scholarship holders.?
63> 15 men take 21 days of 8 hrs. each to do a piece of work. How many days of 6 hrs. each would it take for 21 women if 3 women do as much work as 2 men?
(a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 19 (d) 29 (Ans. A)
64> A cylinder is 6 cms in diameter and 6 cms in height. If spheres of the same size are made from the material obtained, what is the diameter of each sphere?
(a) 5 cms (b) 2 cms (c) 3 cms (d) 4 cms (Ans C)
65> A rectangular plank (2)1/2 meters wide can be placed so that it is on either side of the diagonal of a square shown below. (Figure is not available) What is the area of the plank? ( Ans :7*(2)1/2 )
66> What is the smallest number by which 2880 must be divided in order to make it into a perfect square ?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (Ans. C)
67> A father is 30 years older than his son however he will be only thrice as old as the son after 5 years what is father's present age ?
(a) 40 yrs (b) 30 yrs (c) 50 yrs (d) none of these (Ans. A)
68> An article sold at a profit of 20% if both the cost price and selling price would be Rs.20/- the profit would be 10% more. What is the cost price of that article?
69> If an item costs Rs.3 in '99 and Rs.203 in '00.What is the % increase in price?
(a) 200/3 % (b) 200/6 % (c) 100% (d) none of these (Ans. A)
70> 5 men or 8 women do equal amount of work in a day. a job requires 3 men and 5 women to finish the job in 10 days how many woman are required to finish the job in 14 days.
a) 10 b) 7 c) 6 d) 12 (Ans 7)
71> A simple interest amount of rs 5000 for six month is rs 200. what is the anual rate of interest?
a) 10% b) 6% c) 8% d) 9% (Ans 8%)
72> In objective test a correct ans score 4 marks and on a wrong ans 2 marks are ---. a student score 480 marks from 150 question. how many ans were correct?
a) 120 b) 130 c) 110 d) 150 (Ans130)
73> An article sold at amount of 50% the net sale price is rs 425 .what is the list price of the article?
a) 500 b) 488 c) 480 d) 510 (Ans 500)
74> A man leaves office daily at 7pm A driver with car comes from his home to pick him from office and bring back home. One day he gets free at 5:30 and instead of waiting for driver he starts walking towards home. In the way he meets the car and returns home on car He reaches home 20 minutes earlier than usual. In how much time does the man reach home usually?? (Ans. 1hr 20min)
75> A works thrice as much as B. If A takes 60 days less than B to do a work then find the number of days it would take to complete the work if both work together?
Ans. 22½days
76> How many 1's are there in the binary form of 8*1024 + 3*64 + 3 Ans. 4
77> In a digital circuit which was to implement (A B) + (A)XOR(B), the designer implements (A B) (A)XOR(B) What is the probability of error in it ?
78> A boy has Rs 2. He wins or loses Re 1 at a time If he wins he gets Re 1 and if he loses the game he loses Re 1.He can loose only 5 times. He is out of the game if he earns Rs 5.Find the number of ways in which this is possible? (Ans. 16)
79> If there are 1024*1280 pixels on a screen and each pixel can have around 16 million colors. Find the memory required for this? (Ans. 4MB)
80> On a particular day A and B decide that they would either speak the truth or will lie. C asks A whether he is speaking truth or lying? He answers and B listens to what he said. C then asks B what A has said B says "A says that he is a liar" What is B speaking ?(a) Truth (b) Lie (c) Truth when A lies (d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (b)
81> What is the angle between the two hands of a clock when time is 8:30
Ans. 75(approx)
82> A student is ranked 13th from right and 8th from left. How many students are there in totality ?
83> A man walks east and turns right and then from there to his left and then 45degrees to his right.In which direction did he go (Ans. North west)
84> A student gets 70% in one subject, 80% in the other. To get an overall of 75% how much should get in third subject.
85> A man shows his friend a woman sitting in a park and says that she the daughter of my grandmother's only son.What is the relation between the two
Ans. Daughter
86> How many squares with sides 1/2 inch long are needed to cover a rectangle that is 4 ft long and 6 ft wide
(a) 24 (b) 96 (c) 3456 (d) 13824 (e) 14266
87> If a=2/3b , b=2/3c, and c=2/3d what part of d is b/
(a) 8/27 (b) 4/9 (c) 2/3 (d) 75% (e) 4/3 Ans. (b)
88> 2598Successive discounts of 20% and 15% are equal to a single discount of
(a) 30% (b) 32% (c) 34% (d) 35% (e) 36 Ans. (b)
89> The petrol tank of an automobile can hold g liters.If a liters was removed when the tank was full, what part of the full tank was removed?
(a)g-a (b)g/a (c) a/g (d) (g-a)/a (e) (g-a)/g (Ans. (c))
90> If x/y=4 and y is not '0' what % of x is 2x-y
(a)150% (b)175% (c)200% (d)250% (Ans. (b))
Sunday, August 17, 2008
NIIT PAPER ON 4th FEBRUARY AT FARIDABAD
NIIT PAPER ON 4th FEBRUARY AT FARIDABAD
The paper consisted of 2 sections :
(i) picture series... a 3*3 matrix was given one element is unknow u have to choose that element relating to the matrix elements...
(ii) It consists of total 38 ques and time limit is 30 mins.....10 ques are technical like..conditions for applying normal forms to a relation.........., output programs, etc
5 ques are from english section ..antynoms, synonyms, fill in the blanks , relation ....not that tough as GRE ques.
5 ques are from Logical Reasoning,
10 ques from quantative just practice chaps like profit & loss, %age, Average, Time and distance...and
5 ques are such that...two columns are given with certain conditions ..
TECH-HR interview.
1st :Tell me something about urself, ur family background.
2nd: Why you opt to become a software engineer..
3rd: whose your role model
4th: some technical ques are also asked about ur area of interest..
The paper consisted of 2 sections :
(i) picture series... a 3*3 matrix was given one element is unknow u have to choose that element relating to the matrix elements...
(ii) It consists of total 38 ques and time limit is 30 mins.....10 ques are technical like..conditions for applying normal forms to a relation.........., output programs, etc
5 ques are from english section ..antynoms, synonyms, fill in the blanks , relation ....not that tough as GRE ques.
5 ques are from Logical Reasoning,
10 ques from quantative just practice chaps like profit & loss, %age, Average, Time and distance...and
5 ques are such that...two columns are given with certain conditions ..
TECH-HR interview.
1st :Tell me something about urself, ur family background.
2nd: Why you opt to become a software engineer..
3rd: whose your role model
4th: some technical ques are also asked about ur area of interest..
Wednesday, August 13, 2008
SBI Paper Whole Testpaper - 25 July 2008
SBI Paper Whole Testpaper - 25 July 2008
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SOUTHERN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
2. If the letters the word COMPARE are rearranged in such that first the vowels within the word are rearranged alphabetically followed by the consonants arranged alphabetically, which of following will be the fifth letter from the right end after the rearrangement?
A. O B. E. C. M. D. P E. None of these
3. If every alternate letter in the word SOLITARY starting from the first letter is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the third letter from the right end after the substitution ?
A. B B. S C. Z D. K E. None of these
4. The letters in the word DOSE are changed in such a way that each vowel is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet. How many meaningful words can be formed with the new set of letters using each letter only once in each word?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
5. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 53146827 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
6. In a certain code CLIMATE is written as BUFLJMD. How is ORDERLY written in that code?
A. SMZDESP B. ZMSDPSE C. ZMSDESP D. ZMSFESP E. None of these
7. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in number 84329517 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 9 E. None of these
8. In a certain code, TOLD is written as 5132 and DEAR is written as 2648. How is LATE written in that code?
A. 3652 B. 3246 C. 3856 D. 3456 E. None of these
9. In a certain code BEAN is written as ABNE and SALE is written as LSEA. How is NEWS written in that code?
A. WNES B. WNSE C. SNWE D. SNEW E. None of these
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?
A. Coal B. Aluminium C. Plastic D. Iron E. Wood
Directions Q. 11-13 : Following questions are based on the information given below:
I.. 'P * Q' means 'P is mother of Q' II. 'P / Q' means 'P is sister of Q'
III. 'P + Q' means 'P is brother of Q' IV. 'P - Q' means 'P is father of Q'
11. Which of the following means 'K is son of R'?
A. R * K B. R - K C. K + T * R D. R - J / K + M E. None of these
12. Which of the following means 'M is paternal uncle of T' ?
A. M + J - T B. M + J * T C. M / J - T D. M + J + T E. None of these
13. Which of the following means 'D is cousin of W' ?
A. D / M + W B. D + M / W C. D * T + W D. D - T / N * W E. None of these
Directions Q. 14-16 : Following questions are based on the five three digits numbers given below:
518 725 849 387 634
14. If the positions of the first and the third digits in each of the numbers are inter changed, which of the following will be the lowest number after the rearrangement?
A. 518 B. 725 C. 849 D. 387 E. 634
15. If the positions of the first and the second digits in each of the numbers are inter changed, which of the following will be the third from the top, when they are arranged in descending order after the rearrangement?
A. 518 B. 725 C. 849 D. 387 E. 634
16. If the positions of the second and the third digits in each number are inter changed, which of the following will be the difference between the highest and the lowest number after the rearrangement?
A. 506 B. 526 C. 416 D. 516 E. None of these
Directions Q. 17-20 : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and J are sitting around a circle facing at the center. S is not an immediate neighbour of V. S is second to the right of T who is second to the right of Q. R is third to the right of J and second to the left of P.
17. Who is the immediate right of Q?
A. S B. R C. V D. Data inadequate E. None of these
18. What is J's position with respect to P?
A. Third to the right B. Second to the left C. Second to the right D. Data inadequate E. None of these
19. How many of them are between Q and S?
A. 2 only B. 3 only C. 4 only D. 2 or 3 only E. None of these
20. Who among the following is sitting between V and R?
A. Q B. J C. T D. S E. None of these
Directions Q. 21-27 : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
M J % 4 T E I 9 # P A $ Q 3 8 N 5 U 7 W B @ D F 1 Z 6 H
21. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
22. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
23. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the sixth to the right of the thirteenth from the right end?
A. B B. 9 C. D D. I E. None of these
24. If all the numbers are removed from the above arrangements, which of the following will be the fourth to the left of the twentieth from the left end?
A. H B. 4 C. B D. H E. None of these
25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. I 9 E B. 7 W 5 C. 1 D D. Q A 3 E. E K 4
26. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
J 4 E I # A Q 8 5 7 @ ?
A. F 1 6 B. D Z C. F 6 D. F 1 Z E. None of these
27. Which of the following is exactly midway between K and W in the above arrangement ?
A. $ B. 3 C. 8 D. A E. None of these
Directions Q. 28-33 : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
28. Statements :
All halls are tyres
Some tyres are wheels
All wheels are cars
Conclusions :
I. Some cars are wheels II. Some cars are tyres III. Some wheels are halls
A. None follow B. Only I follow C. Only I and II follow D. Only III follows E. Only II and III follow
29. Statements :
Some blades are hammers
Some hammers are knives
Some knives are axes
Conclusions :
I Some axes are hammers II. Some knives are blades III. Some axes are blades
A. None follows B. Only I follows C. Only II follows D. Only III follows E. None of these
30. Statements :
All dolls are windows
All bottles are windows
All cars are bottles
Conclusions :
I All cars are windows II Some cars are dolls III. Some windows are cars
A. Only I and II follow B. Only II and III follow C. Only I and III follow D. All follow E. None of these
31. Statements :
Some benches are beads
All beads are flowers
No tree is flower
Conclusions :
I. Some trees are benches II. Some trees are beads III. No tree is bead
A. Only I follows B. Only either I or II follows C. Only either I or II follows D. Only III follows E. None of these
32. Statements :
All breads are tables
Some tables are brushes
All brushes are paints
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are breads II. Some brushes are breads III. Some paints are tables
A. None follows B. Only II follows C. Only III follows D. Only I and II follow E. Only II and III follow
33. Statements :
Some pictures are frames
Some frames are idols
All idols are curtains
Conclusions :
I. Some curtains are pictures II. Some curtains are frames III. Some idols are frames
A. Only I and II follow B. Only II and III follow C. Only I and III follow D. All follow E. None of these
Directions Q.34-38 : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
A. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in the Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
B. If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
D. If the data given in both the Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
E. If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
34. Who among M, N, P, T and R is the youngest?
I. N and T are younger than P. II M is older than R and P
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
35. How many children are there in the row?
I. Manoj is twelth from the left end and fourth to the left of Hari in that row
II. Hari is eigth from the right end of that
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
36. How is 'red' written in a code language?
I. 'red and blue' is written as 'ho po da' in that code language II. 'spread red carpet' is written as 'na da ka' in that code language
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
37. Village R is towards which directions of village M?
I. Village M is to the West of Village T which is to the South of Village R
II. Village M is to the South of Village B which is to the West of village R
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
38. How many sisters does D have?
I. D's mother has four children II. K and T are brothers of E
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions Q. 39-43 : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement and given answer
A. if only Assumptions I is implicit B. if only Assumption II is implicit C. if either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit
D. if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit E. if both Assumption I and II are implicit
39. Statements :
The Government has decided to provide monetary relief to the farmers in the drought his areas
Assumptions :
I. The farmers of the affected areas may accept the Government relief
II. The Government machinery may be able to reach the affected farmers to provide relief
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
40. Statements :
All the students of a school were instructed by the Principal to reach school at least 15 minutes before the stipulated time for the coming month
Assumptions :
I. The parents of the students of the school may protest against the Principal's instructions
II. The parents may request the Principal to withdraw the instruction
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
41. Statements :
Railway authority has started internet booking facility of long distance trains and also deliver the tickets at the door-step through courier service at a little extra cost
Assumptions :
I. Many customers may now book their tickets through internet resulting into less crowd at ticket booking offices.}
II. Most of the customers may still buy their railway tickets at the booking counters
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
42. Statements :
" If you have obtained 75% or more marks in X Std. examination, your admission to our coaching class for XII Std. is guaranteed". - An advertisement
Assumptions :
I. Bright students do not generally opt for attending coaching classes
II. The coaching class has adequate capacity to accommodate all such students
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
43. Statements :
The municipal corporation has given permission for holding funfairs in the local football ground during the holiday season
Assumptions:
I. The local residents may protest against the Corporation's decision
II. Many people may not participate in the unfair
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions Q. 44-48: Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity and mark answer:
A. if the inference is definitely true i.e, it properly follows from the statement of facts given
B. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of facts given
C. if the data are inadequate, i.e, from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
D. if the interference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
E. if the inference is definitely false, i.e, it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts
The jeweller-next-door may have reasons to worry, thanks to the organised retail and branded goods hitting the right cord from Indian consumers. The recent changes in lifestyle goods industry and the diamonds industry threatens to impact the family jeweller segment, which currently controls 97% of India's fragmented jewellery retail market. A study suggests that as India's jewellery market matures, it is expected to get more organised and the share of family jeweller is expected to come down. The family jeweller segment is he largest segment of the market and hence, most likely to be impacted by these changes. Family jewellers will have to bring in new practices and range of designs and customisation of jewellery would differentiate the players. Currently, organised retailers are enlarging the pie but the traditional players are not feeling the impact yet
44. Share of business of the small time jewellers will reduce substantially in the near future
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
45. Family jewellers have never customised their designs in the past.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
46. Big retail companies have the capability to bring in more competition in the jewellery market
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
47. Family jewellers at present control about two-third share of the entire jewellery market
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
48. There is a perceptible change in the choices of the customers in recent times with regard to lifestyle products
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions Q.49-53 : Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements and mark answer:
A. if Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
B. if Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect
C. if both the Statements I and II are independent causes
D. if both the Statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E. if both the Statements I and II are effects of some common cause
49. I. The prices of petroleum products dropped marginally last week
II. The State Government reduced the tax on petroleum products last week
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
50. I. Majority of the citizens in the locality belong to higher income group.
II. The sales in the local super market are comparatively much higher than in other localities
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
51.I. A major fire destroyed part of the oil refinery owned by a private company.
II. Government has decided to increase the supply to retailers from the public sector refineries
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
52. I. The Government medical college has decided to increase the number of seats in undergraduate course from the next academic session
II. The Government has decided to withdraw its grant from all the Government medical colleges from the next academic session'
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
53. I. Every year large number of people spend their vacation in various tourist destinations within the country
II. Every year large number of people spend their vacations in various tourist destinations outside the country
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
=====================================================
SBI Paper Whole Testpaper - 26 July 2008
1. Which layers of the OSI model are included in the lower layers?
A. Application, Session, Presentation B. Physical, Transport, Data Link C. Data Link, Physical, Network
D. Session, Data Link, Physical E. None of these
2. From smallest to largest, rank the following logical pieces of the database : data block, table space, extent, segment
A. table space, segment, extent, data block B. data block, segment, extent, table space
C. Segment, extent, data block, table space D. data block, extent, segment, table space E. None of these
3. Where are cookies stored?
A. On the server B. In web.xml C. On the client D. In HTML E. None of these
4. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?
A. Through a power cable B. From an external power supply C. Directly from the computer's power supply
D. Through the USB cable E. None of these
5. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration?
A. The type of drivers that come with the mouse B. The length of the mouse cord C. The type of connector the mouse is equipped with
D. The number of buttons the mouse has E. None of these
6. Programme that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called..................
A. Metasearch engines B. Webcrawlers C. Spiders D. Hits E. None of these
7. You are planning on using a single network that support 208 users. Which IP address class would you choose to be the most effect?
A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D E. Class E
8. Which of the following options is not a JSP implicit object?
A. Out B. In C. Response D. Page E. None of these
9. In Oracle, which statement is true about segments?
A. Each table has its own segment B. A segment is created every time an extent is created, extended, or altered
C. An index segment is created every time a table is created D. A segment is deleted whenever a table is truncated E. None of these
10. All of the following are basic principles of networks, except ...............
A. each computer must have a network card B. there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
C. there must be at least one connecting device D. each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
E. None of these
11. Which of the following could be a legitimate Media Access Control address?
A. 192.168.254.3 B. 3FA2.4756.F9A3 C. A5514 D. C1.3A.77.5B E. None of these
12. The term, hypertext means .................
A. Non-sequential writing B. Hypermedia C. Blinking text D. Text with heavy formatting E. None of these
13. You receive an e-mail message that forms you that a terrible virus has been unleashed on the Internet and that you should warn all the people in your Address Book. Which of the following have you most likely encountered?
A. A virus hoax B. A filter C. A spam D. A virus E. A worm
14. If 20 people need to communicate using symmetric-key cryptography, .................symmetric keys are needed
A. 190 B. 200 C. 20 D. 19 E. 210
15. What should you do as soon as you have successfully created the data base and the data dictionary?
A. Open the data base for users to start adding data B. Start adding a bunch of table space to allow users to use
C. Leave it running for a few days to make sure that nothing bad is going to happen
D. Shut it down and take a cold back up E. None of these
16. Which of the following is the default mask of a class A IP address?
A. 255.0.0.255 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.0.0.0 D. 255.255.255.0 E. None of these
17. What is Internet 2?
A. A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks
B. A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access
C. A new standard for Internet browsers
D. An association to develop advanced Internet technology
E. None of these
18. Which of the following objects is passed to a Java Bean when one of its properties is set via at JSP action?
A. Servlet Request B. Http Servlet Request C. Servlet Response D. Http Servlet Response E. None of these
19. If you wanted to locate the hardware address to a local device, which protocol would you use?
A. ARP B. RARP C. ICMP D. PING E. PONG
20. In oracle, which table space is the minimum required when creating a new data base?
A. Undo table space B. Temporary table space C. System table space D. Users table space E. None of these
21. Data space red sign is not terribly difficult if the .........................
A. data base is structured B. data base is well- designed C. data space has no data D. data base is relatively small
E. data base is relatively large
22. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer system's hard ware?
A. Bootstrap memory B. Volatile memory C. External mass memory D. Static memory E. Random access memory
23. Which of the following is not true about two-tier client-server data base architecture?
A. SQL statements are processed on the server B. SQL statements may be processed on some of the clients
C. Business logic is mostly processed on clients D. Business logic may be processed on the server E. None of these
24. The process by which the structure of the data base is modified to eliminate hidden dependencies and repeating groups is .............
A. enforcing data integrity B. enforcing referential integrity C. indexing D. normalization E. None of these
25. Which of the following functions is not performed by TCP?
A. Flow control B. Sequencing C. Error checking D. Sub netting E. None of these
26. In oracle, who owns the data dictionary?
A. Oracle B. SYS C. The DBA D. SYSTEM E. None of these
27. The reason the data outputs of most ROM ICs are tri-state outputs is to .........
A. allow for three separate data input lines B. allow the bi-directional flow of data between the bus lines and the ROM registers
C. permit the connection of many ROM chips to a common data bus D. isolate the registers from the data bus during read operations
E. None of these
28. To drop a column that is used as a foreign key, first......................
A. drop the primary key B. drop the table C. drop the foreign key constraint D. All of these E. None of these
29. In the straight CGI approach to data-base connectivity on the Internet.....................
A. the external program is located between the client and the web server
B. the external program is located between the data base server and the data base
C. the external program is located between the web server and the data base server
D. there is no external program
30. What is the name of protocol used to eliminate loops?
A. Switching B. ISL C. Frame Tagging D. Spanning Tree Protocol E. Scanning
31. The effect of the ROLLBACK command in a transaction is the following.............................
A. undo all changes to the data base resulting from the execution of the transaction
B. undo the effects of the last UPDATE command
C. restore the content of the data base to its state at the end of the previous day
D. make sure that all changes to the data base are in effect
E. None of these
32. In Oracle, what is the default number of transactions that MAXTRANS is set to if not specified?
A. 512 B. 10 C. 40 D. 1 E. 255
33. To which pin on the RAM chip does the address decoder connect in order to signal which memory chip is being accessed?
A. The address input B. The output enable C. The chip enable D. The data input E. The data output
34. Which of the following switching methods provides the greatest frame through out?
A. Store-and-forward switching B. Frame-tag switching C. Cut-through switching D. ISL switching
E. Store-and-backward switching
35. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
A. Cipher B. Warded C. Device D. Tumbler. E. Typelock
36. A gateway is .............................
A. a device that enables users to send information simultaneously over a network without slowing down transmission
B. an electronic device that connects several computing devices to a network
C. a point in one network that is an entrance point to another network
D. a device that links two or more segments of a network and helps direct traffic
E. None of these
37. Which of the following is considered a vulnerability of SNMP?
A. Clear text community strings B. Its use of TCP C. The fact that it is on by default in Windows 2000 server
D. The fact that it is on by default in Windows XP Professional E. None of these
38. Network routing information distributed among routers is stored in which of the following?
A. Flash memory B. Route table C. Metric table D. NVRAM E. Router memory
39. If the destination did not receive a segment, how will the TCP host know to resend the information?
A. The ACK received will not include the segment number that was not received
B. The ACK received will include the segment number that was not received
C. The sending host will send a PACK to verify segment receipt
D. The destination host will send a YACK message back to the sending host
E. None of these
40. What are the effects of mixing RAM modules with different speed ratings?
A. The system runs at the speed of the slowest RAM stick
B. The system runs normally C. The system runs at the speed of the memory bus
D. The system may not run, or it crashes periodically E. None of these
41. What kind of scheme is the HTTP protocol?
A. Get/ put B. Store/ forward C. Queuing D. Search/ return E. Request/ response'
42. What type of error does a memory parity error create?
A. A fatal exception error B. An NMI error C. A corrupt windows operating system file
D. A GPF error E. A GPA error
43. Which is not a part of the Oracle data base base block?
A. Header B. Row directory C. Data D. Freelists E. None of these
44. Which of the following cannot be used as the scope when using a Java Bean with JSP?
A. Page B. Request C. Session D. Application E. Response
45. Which of the following is used for integrity?
A. DES B. Diffie-Hellman C. SED D. AES E. MD5
46. What is ISL used for?
A. To allow an Ethernet interface to understand frame tags
B. To make two Ethernet interfaces appear as one
C. To connect an Ethernet switch with a high-speed core switch such as ATM
D. To allow simultaneous routing and switching
E. None of these
47. Which of the following describes programs that can run independently, travel from system and disrupt computer communications?
A. Trojans B. Viruses C. Idlers D. Droppers E. Worms
48. You need to configure a switch from a remote subnet. Which of the following must be configured on the switch?
A. Console port B. IP C. Hostname D. SNMP E. Default gateway
49. In Oracle, which is more appropriate to store a small list of values in a single column in each row in your address table?
A. ORACARRAY B. Nested table C. Index organised table D. Index E. VARRAY
50. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information?
A. Visit Google's cached page to view the older copy
B. Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information
C. Visit a partner site of the organisation to see if it is there
D. Use the way back machine
E. None of these
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SOUTHERN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
2. If the letters the word COMPARE are rearranged in such that first the vowels within the word are rearranged alphabetically followed by the consonants arranged alphabetically, which of following will be the fifth letter from the right end after the rearrangement?
A. O B. E. C. M. D. P E. None of these
3. If every alternate letter in the word SOLITARY starting from the first letter is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the third letter from the right end after the substitution ?
A. B B. S C. Z D. K E. None of these
4. The letters in the word DOSE are changed in such a way that each vowel is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet. How many meaningful words can be formed with the new set of letters using each letter only once in each word?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
5. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 53146827 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
6. In a certain code CLIMATE is written as BUFLJMD. How is ORDERLY written in that code?
A. SMZDESP B. ZMSDPSE C. ZMSDESP D. ZMSFESP E. None of these
7. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in number 84329517 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 9 E. None of these
8. In a certain code, TOLD is written as 5132 and DEAR is written as 2648. How is LATE written in that code?
A. 3652 B. 3246 C. 3856 D. 3456 E. None of these
9. In a certain code BEAN is written as ABNE and SALE is written as LSEA. How is NEWS written in that code?
A. WNES B. WNSE C. SNWE D. SNEW E. None of these
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?
A. Coal B. Aluminium C. Plastic D. Iron E. Wood
Directions Q. 11-13 : Following questions are based on the information given below:
I.. 'P * Q' means 'P is mother of Q' II. 'P / Q' means 'P is sister of Q'
III. 'P + Q' means 'P is brother of Q' IV. 'P - Q' means 'P is father of Q'
11. Which of the following means 'K is son of R'?
A. R * K B. R - K C. K + T * R D. R - J / K + M E. None of these
12. Which of the following means 'M is paternal uncle of T' ?
A. M + J - T B. M + J * T C. M / J - T D. M + J + T E. None of these
13. Which of the following means 'D is cousin of W' ?
A. D / M + W B. D + M / W C. D * T + W D. D - T / N * W E. None of these
Directions Q. 14-16 : Following questions are based on the five three digits numbers given below:
518 725 849 387 634
14. If the positions of the first and the third digits in each of the numbers are inter changed, which of the following will be the lowest number after the rearrangement?
A. 518 B. 725 C. 849 D. 387 E. 634
15. If the positions of the first and the second digits in each of the numbers are inter changed, which of the following will be the third from the top, when they are arranged in descending order after the rearrangement?
A. 518 B. 725 C. 849 D. 387 E. 634
16. If the positions of the second and the third digits in each number are inter changed, which of the following will be the difference between the highest and the lowest number after the rearrangement?
A. 506 B. 526 C. 416 D. 516 E. None of these
Directions Q. 17-20 : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and J are sitting around a circle facing at the center. S is not an immediate neighbour of V. S is second to the right of T who is second to the right of Q. R is third to the right of J and second to the left of P.
17. Who is the immediate right of Q?
A. S B. R C. V D. Data inadequate E. None of these
18. What is J's position with respect to P?
A. Third to the right B. Second to the left C. Second to the right D. Data inadequate E. None of these
19. How many of them are between Q and S?
A. 2 only B. 3 only C. 4 only D. 2 or 3 only E. None of these
20. Who among the following is sitting between V and R?
A. Q B. J C. T D. S E. None of these
Directions Q. 21-27 : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
M J % 4 T E I 9 # P A $ Q 3 8 N 5 U 7 W B @ D F 1 Z 6 H
21. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
22. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
23. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the sixth to the right of the thirteenth from the right end?
A. B B. 9 C. D D. I E. None of these
24. If all the numbers are removed from the above arrangements, which of the following will be the fourth to the left of the twentieth from the left end?
A. H B. 4 C. B D. H E. None of these
25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. I 9 E B. 7 W 5 C. 1 D D. Q A 3 E. E K 4
26. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
J 4 E I # A Q 8 5 7 @ ?
A. F 1 6 B. D Z C. F 6 D. F 1 Z E. None of these
27. Which of the following is exactly midway between K and W in the above arrangement ?
A. $ B. 3 C. 8 D. A E. None of these
Directions Q. 28-33 : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
28. Statements :
All halls are tyres
Some tyres are wheels
All wheels are cars
Conclusions :
I. Some cars are wheels II. Some cars are tyres III. Some wheels are halls
A. None follow B. Only I follow C. Only I and II follow D. Only III follows E. Only II and III follow
29. Statements :
Some blades are hammers
Some hammers are knives
Some knives are axes
Conclusions :
I Some axes are hammers II. Some knives are blades III. Some axes are blades
A. None follows B. Only I follows C. Only II follows D. Only III follows E. None of these
30. Statements :
All dolls are windows
All bottles are windows
All cars are bottles
Conclusions :
I All cars are windows II Some cars are dolls III. Some windows are cars
A. Only I and II follow B. Only II and III follow C. Only I and III follow D. All follow E. None of these
31. Statements :
Some benches are beads
All beads are flowers
No tree is flower
Conclusions :
I. Some trees are benches II. Some trees are beads III. No tree is bead
A. Only I follows B. Only either I or II follows C. Only either I or II follows D. Only III follows E. None of these
32. Statements :
All breads are tables
Some tables are brushes
All brushes are paints
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are breads II. Some brushes are breads III. Some paints are tables
A. None follows B. Only II follows C. Only III follows D. Only I and II follow E. Only II and III follow
33. Statements :
Some pictures are frames
Some frames are idols
All idols are curtains
Conclusions :
I. Some curtains are pictures II. Some curtains are frames III. Some idols are frames
A. Only I and II follow B. Only II and III follow C. Only I and III follow D. All follow E. None of these
Directions Q.34-38 : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
A. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in the Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
B. If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
D. If the data given in both the Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
E. If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
34. Who among M, N, P, T and R is the youngest?
I. N and T are younger than P. II M is older than R and P
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
35. How many children are there in the row?
I. Manoj is twelth from the left end and fourth to the left of Hari in that row
II. Hari is eigth from the right end of that
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
36. How is 'red' written in a code language?
I. 'red and blue' is written as 'ho po da' in that code language II. 'spread red carpet' is written as 'na da ka' in that code language
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
37. Village R is towards which directions of village M?
I. Village M is to the West of Village T which is to the South of Village R
II. Village M is to the South of Village B which is to the West of village R
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
38. How many sisters does D have?
I. D's mother has four children II. K and T are brothers of E
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions Q. 39-43 : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement and given answer
A. if only Assumptions I is implicit B. if only Assumption II is implicit C. if either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit
D. if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit E. if both Assumption I and II are implicit
39. Statements :
The Government has decided to provide monetary relief to the farmers in the drought his areas
Assumptions :
I. The farmers of the affected areas may accept the Government relief
II. The Government machinery may be able to reach the affected farmers to provide relief
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
40. Statements :
All the students of a school were instructed by the Principal to reach school at least 15 minutes before the stipulated time for the coming month
Assumptions :
I. The parents of the students of the school may protest against the Principal's instructions
II. The parents may request the Principal to withdraw the instruction
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
41. Statements :
Railway authority has started internet booking facility of long distance trains and also deliver the tickets at the door-step through courier service at a little extra cost
Assumptions :
I. Many customers may now book their tickets through internet resulting into less crowd at ticket booking offices.}
II. Most of the customers may still buy their railway tickets at the booking counters
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
42. Statements :
" If you have obtained 75% or more marks in X Std. examination, your admission to our coaching class for XII Std. is guaranteed". - An advertisement
Assumptions :
I. Bright students do not generally opt for attending coaching classes
II. The coaching class has adequate capacity to accommodate all such students
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
43. Statements :
The municipal corporation has given permission for holding funfairs in the local football ground during the holiday season
Assumptions:
I. The local residents may protest against the Corporation's decision
II. Many people may not participate in the unfair
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions Q. 44-48: Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity and mark answer:
A. if the inference is definitely true i.e, it properly follows from the statement of facts given
B. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of facts given
C. if the data are inadequate, i.e, from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
D. if the interference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
E. if the inference is definitely false, i.e, it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts
The jeweller-next-door may have reasons to worry, thanks to the organised retail and branded goods hitting the right cord from Indian consumers. The recent changes in lifestyle goods industry and the diamonds industry threatens to impact the family jeweller segment, which currently controls 97% of India's fragmented jewellery retail market. A study suggests that as India's jewellery market matures, it is expected to get more organised and the share of family jeweller is expected to come down. The family jeweller segment is he largest segment of the market and hence, most likely to be impacted by these changes. Family jewellers will have to bring in new practices and range of designs and customisation of jewellery would differentiate the players. Currently, organised retailers are enlarging the pie but the traditional players are not feeling the impact yet
44. Share of business of the small time jewellers will reduce substantially in the near future
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
45. Family jewellers have never customised their designs in the past.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
46. Big retail companies have the capability to bring in more competition in the jewellery market
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
47. Family jewellers at present control about two-third share of the entire jewellery market
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
48. There is a perceptible change in the choices of the customers in recent times with regard to lifestyle products
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions Q.49-53 : Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements and mark answer:
A. if Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
B. if Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect
C. if both the Statements I and II are independent causes
D. if both the Statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E. if both the Statements I and II are effects of some common cause
49. I. The prices of petroleum products dropped marginally last week
II. The State Government reduced the tax on petroleum products last week
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
50. I. Majority of the citizens in the locality belong to higher income group.
II. The sales in the local super market are comparatively much higher than in other localities
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
51.I. A major fire destroyed part of the oil refinery owned by a private company.
II. Government has decided to increase the supply to retailers from the public sector refineries
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
52. I. The Government medical college has decided to increase the number of seats in undergraduate course from the next academic session
II. The Government has decided to withdraw its grant from all the Government medical colleges from the next academic session'
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
53. I. Every year large number of people spend their vacation in various tourist destinations within the country
II. Every year large number of people spend their vacations in various tourist destinations outside the country
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
=====================================================
SBI Paper Whole Testpaper - 26 July 2008
1. Which layers of the OSI model are included in the lower layers?
A. Application, Session, Presentation B. Physical, Transport, Data Link C. Data Link, Physical, Network
D. Session, Data Link, Physical E. None of these
2. From smallest to largest, rank the following logical pieces of the database : data block, table space, extent, segment
A. table space, segment, extent, data block B. data block, segment, extent, table space
C. Segment, extent, data block, table space D. data block, extent, segment, table space E. None of these
3. Where are cookies stored?
A. On the server B. In web.xml C. On the client D. In HTML E. None of these
4. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?
A. Through a power cable B. From an external power supply C. Directly from the computer's power supply
D. Through the USB cable E. None of these
5. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration?
A. The type of drivers that come with the mouse B. The length of the mouse cord C. The type of connector the mouse is equipped with
D. The number of buttons the mouse has E. None of these
6. Programme that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called..................
A. Metasearch engines B. Webcrawlers C. Spiders D. Hits E. None of these
7. You are planning on using a single network that support 208 users. Which IP address class would you choose to be the most effect?
A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D E. Class E
8. Which of the following options is not a JSP implicit object?
A. Out B. In C. Response D. Page E. None of these
9. In Oracle, which statement is true about segments?
A. Each table has its own segment B. A segment is created every time an extent is created, extended, or altered
C. An index segment is created every time a table is created D. A segment is deleted whenever a table is truncated E. None of these
10. All of the following are basic principles of networks, except ...............
A. each computer must have a network card B. there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
C. there must be at least one connecting device D. each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
E. None of these
11. Which of the following could be a legitimate Media Access Control address?
A. 192.168.254.3 B. 3FA2.4756.F9A3 C. A5514 D. C1.3A.77.5B E. None of these
12. The term, hypertext means .................
A. Non-sequential writing B. Hypermedia C. Blinking text D. Text with heavy formatting E. None of these
13. You receive an e-mail message that forms you that a terrible virus has been unleashed on the Internet and that you should warn all the people in your Address Book. Which of the following have you most likely encountered?
A. A virus hoax B. A filter C. A spam D. A virus E. A worm
14. If 20 people need to communicate using symmetric-key cryptography, .................symmetric keys are needed
A. 190 B. 200 C. 20 D. 19 E. 210
15. What should you do as soon as you have successfully created the data base and the data dictionary?
A. Open the data base for users to start adding data B. Start adding a bunch of table space to allow users to use
C. Leave it running for a few days to make sure that nothing bad is going to happen
D. Shut it down and take a cold back up E. None of these
16. Which of the following is the default mask of a class A IP address?
A. 255.0.0.255 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.0.0.0 D. 255.255.255.0 E. None of these
17. What is Internet 2?
A. A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks
B. A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access
C. A new standard for Internet browsers
D. An association to develop advanced Internet technology
E. None of these
18. Which of the following objects is passed to a Java Bean when one of its properties is set via at JSP action?
A. Servlet Request B. Http Servlet Request C. Servlet Response D. Http Servlet Response E. None of these
19. If you wanted to locate the hardware address to a local device, which protocol would you use?
A. ARP B. RARP C. ICMP D. PING E. PONG
20. In oracle, which table space is the minimum required when creating a new data base?
A. Undo table space B. Temporary table space C. System table space D. Users table space E. None of these
21. Data space red sign is not terribly difficult if the .........................
A. data base is structured B. data base is well- designed C. data space has no data D. data base is relatively small
E. data base is relatively large
22. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer system's hard ware?
A. Bootstrap memory B. Volatile memory C. External mass memory D. Static memory E. Random access memory
23. Which of the following is not true about two-tier client-server data base architecture?
A. SQL statements are processed on the server B. SQL statements may be processed on some of the clients
C. Business logic is mostly processed on clients D. Business logic may be processed on the server E. None of these
24. The process by which the structure of the data base is modified to eliminate hidden dependencies and repeating groups is .............
A. enforcing data integrity B. enforcing referential integrity C. indexing D. normalization E. None of these
25. Which of the following functions is not performed by TCP?
A. Flow control B. Sequencing C. Error checking D. Sub netting E. None of these
26. In oracle, who owns the data dictionary?
A. Oracle B. SYS C. The DBA D. SYSTEM E. None of these
27. The reason the data outputs of most ROM ICs are tri-state outputs is to .........
A. allow for three separate data input lines B. allow the bi-directional flow of data between the bus lines and the ROM registers
C. permit the connection of many ROM chips to a common data bus D. isolate the registers from the data bus during read operations
E. None of these
28. To drop a column that is used as a foreign key, first......................
A. drop the primary key B. drop the table C. drop the foreign key constraint D. All of these E. None of these
29. In the straight CGI approach to data-base connectivity on the Internet.....................
A. the external program is located between the client and the web server
B. the external program is located between the data base server and the data base
C. the external program is located between the web server and the data base server
D. there is no external program
30. What is the name of protocol used to eliminate loops?
A. Switching B. ISL C. Frame Tagging D. Spanning Tree Protocol E. Scanning
31. The effect of the ROLLBACK command in a transaction is the following.............................
A. undo all changes to the data base resulting from the execution of the transaction
B. undo the effects of the last UPDATE command
C. restore the content of the data base to its state at the end of the previous day
D. make sure that all changes to the data base are in effect
E. None of these
32. In Oracle, what is the default number of transactions that MAXTRANS is set to if not specified?
A. 512 B. 10 C. 40 D. 1 E. 255
33. To which pin on the RAM chip does the address decoder connect in order to signal which memory chip is being accessed?
A. The address input B. The output enable C. The chip enable D. The data input E. The data output
34. Which of the following switching methods provides the greatest frame through out?
A. Store-and-forward switching B. Frame-tag switching C. Cut-through switching D. ISL switching
E. Store-and-backward switching
35. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
A. Cipher B. Warded C. Device D. Tumbler. E. Typelock
36. A gateway is .............................
A. a device that enables users to send information simultaneously over a network without slowing down transmission
B. an electronic device that connects several computing devices to a network
C. a point in one network that is an entrance point to another network
D. a device that links two or more segments of a network and helps direct traffic
E. None of these
37. Which of the following is considered a vulnerability of SNMP?
A. Clear text community strings B. Its use of TCP C. The fact that it is on by default in Windows 2000 server
D. The fact that it is on by default in Windows XP Professional E. None of these
38. Network routing information distributed among routers is stored in which of the following?
A. Flash memory B. Route table C. Metric table D. NVRAM E. Router memory
39. If the destination did not receive a segment, how will the TCP host know to resend the information?
A. The ACK received will not include the segment number that was not received
B. The ACK received will include the segment number that was not received
C. The sending host will send a PACK to verify segment receipt
D. The destination host will send a YACK message back to the sending host
E. None of these
40. What are the effects of mixing RAM modules with different speed ratings?
A. The system runs at the speed of the slowest RAM stick
B. The system runs normally C. The system runs at the speed of the memory bus
D. The system may not run, or it crashes periodically E. None of these
41. What kind of scheme is the HTTP protocol?
A. Get/ put B. Store/ forward C. Queuing D. Search/ return E. Request/ response'
42. What type of error does a memory parity error create?
A. A fatal exception error B. An NMI error C. A corrupt windows operating system file
D. A GPF error E. A GPA error
43. Which is not a part of the Oracle data base base block?
A. Header B. Row directory C. Data D. Freelists E. None of these
44. Which of the following cannot be used as the scope when using a Java Bean with JSP?
A. Page B. Request C. Session D. Application E. Response
45. Which of the following is used for integrity?
A. DES B. Diffie-Hellman C. SED D. AES E. MD5
46. What is ISL used for?
A. To allow an Ethernet interface to understand frame tags
B. To make two Ethernet interfaces appear as one
C. To connect an Ethernet switch with a high-speed core switch such as ATM
D. To allow simultaneous routing and switching
E. None of these
47. Which of the following describes programs that can run independently, travel from system and disrupt computer communications?
A. Trojans B. Viruses C. Idlers D. Droppers E. Worms
48. You need to configure a switch from a remote subnet. Which of the following must be configured on the switch?
A. Console port B. IP C. Hostname D. SNMP E. Default gateway
49. In Oracle, which is more appropriate to store a small list of values in a single column in each row in your address table?
A. ORACARRAY B. Nested table C. Index organised table D. Index E. VARRAY
50. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information?
A. Visit Google's cached page to view the older copy
B. Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information
C. Visit a partner site of the organisation to see if it is there
D. Use the way back machine
E. None of these
NALCO Placement Papers
NALCO papers on 28th oct. 2007 at DELHI
Technical Questions:
1) rms value of AC current is equal to main current at an angle ?
a) 60 b) 45 c) 30 d) 90
2) Corona produce in two transmission line if ?
a) Whn both placed closed b) Whn both placed widely
c) Potential difference is very high d) I did’t remembered
3) Diac is equall to ?
a) Two diode and two resister b) Trice with two gate
c) Two thyristor connect in antiparallel d)Four layer pnpn scr
4) In the Economic transmission point of view Kelvin,s gives ?
A) Voltage drop at feeder b) transmission losses
Two more option I did’t remember.
5) The essential condition for using servomotor for high torque at all?
a) load b) speed
c) voltage d) power
6) If torque of induction motor is 200n-m at slip 12%. Wht is the value of torque at slip 6%.....?
a) 60n-m b) 40
c) 100 n-m d) 150
7) If speed of induction motor at full load is 950rpm then wht is the speed at half load ?
a) 1000 rpm b) 975
Two option I forget……
Find the value of ∫│cost +1/2│dt where limit is 0 to ∏/2?
Option I did’t remerm
9) Wht is the slope of –x3+ 6x2+ 2x+1=0?
Option I did’t remerm
10) For the purpose of constant speed we use?
a) Brushless dc motor b) stepper motor
c) shaded pole motor d) sync motor
11) Essential condition for parallel operation of 1phase transformer?
a) Rating b) Polarity
c) Impedance d) Voltage
12) Some of G.K. question
About placed of shriharikota space center.
13) Who did give the name of AL?
14) World literacy day?
15) World environment day?
16) If two heaters of 100W & 110 volt other are 150W & 110 volt connect in series with 220v ac source then what is the total power?
17) What is the GDP rate of India in 2005-06?
1 What is the % rate of production of AL in India?
a) 10 b) 20
c) 7 d) 14
19) One passes which have 4Qs
20) Some fill in blanks
21) One Q about the find the % of fifth harmonics in a current wave equation.
22) 4pole 3phase 50 htz induction motor running at 1460 rpm. Wht is the speed of running slip wrt to rotor?
23) Find the new kva rating of transformer which hav 220 kva, 1watt iron loss and 2watt cu loss?
24) Hay’s bridge used for the measurement of?
25) In R-L-C parallel resonant circuit
a) Impedance is max. b) resistance is min
two more options I did’t remember
26) Two bulb 100w & 50w respectively with constant resistances connect in series with 220v dc source then wht is the value of voltage across first bulb?
27) AC ammeter used for measurement in
a) Pmmc b) induction meter
c) Dynamometer d) moving iron type meter
2 For ac current we use?
Same option
29) we preferred V-V connection over T-T connection why?
30) Suspension type insulator is used whn?
a) high voltage b) low voltage
c) oscillating voltage d) steady voltage
31) One question based on Norton’s theorem?
32) One question based on inverted-V curve of synch motor.
33) one question based on load saturation curve.
34) There were 4 question like if A*B represent A is the son of B, some like that
35) Some questions from BAR-GRAPHS
36) Some questions from probability.
37) Some questions from Data–interpretation
3 Some questions from diodes.
39) One question from winding design for motor (find value of commutator segment)
Technical Questions:
1) rms value of AC current is equal to main current at an angle ?
a) 60 b) 45 c) 30 d) 90
2) Corona produce in two transmission line if ?
a) Whn both placed closed b) Whn both placed widely
c) Potential difference is very high d) I did’t remembered
3) Diac is equall to ?
a) Two diode and two resister b) Trice with two gate
c) Two thyristor connect in antiparallel d)Four layer pnpn scr
4) In the Economic transmission point of view Kelvin,s gives ?
A) Voltage drop at feeder b) transmission losses
Two more option I did’t remember.
5) The essential condition for using servomotor for high torque at all?
a) load b) speed
c) voltage d) power
6) If torque of induction motor is 200n-m at slip 12%. Wht is the value of torque at slip 6%.....?
a) 60n-m b) 40
c) 100 n-m d) 150
7) If speed of induction motor at full load is 950rpm then wht is the speed at half load ?
a) 1000 rpm b) 975
Two option I forget……
Find the value of ∫│cost +1/2│dt where limit is 0 to ∏/2?Option I did’t remerm
9) Wht is the slope of –x3+ 6x2+ 2x+1=0?
Option I did’t remerm
10) For the purpose of constant speed we use?
a) Brushless dc motor b) stepper motor
c) shaded pole motor d) sync motor
11) Essential condition for parallel operation of 1phase transformer?
a) Rating b) Polarity
c) Impedance d) Voltage
12) Some of G.K. question
About placed of shriharikota space center.
13) Who did give the name of AL?
14) World literacy day?
15) World environment day?
16) If two heaters of 100W & 110 volt other are 150W & 110 volt connect in series with 220v ac source then what is the total power?
17) What is the GDP rate of India in 2005-06?
1
What is the % rate of production of AL in India?a) 10 b) 20
c) 7 d) 14
19) One passes which have 4Qs
20) Some fill in blanks
21) One Q about the find the % of fifth harmonics in a current wave equation.
22) 4pole 3phase 50 htz induction motor running at 1460 rpm. Wht is the speed of running slip wrt to rotor?
23) Find the new kva rating of transformer which hav 220 kva, 1watt iron loss and 2watt cu loss?
24) Hay’s bridge used for the measurement of?
25) In R-L-C parallel resonant circuit
a) Impedance is max. b) resistance is min
two more options I did’t remember
26) Two bulb 100w & 50w respectively with constant resistances connect in series with 220v dc source then wht is the value of voltage across first bulb?
27) AC ammeter used for measurement in
a) Pmmc b) induction meter
c) Dynamometer d) moving iron type meter
2
For ac current we use?Same option
29) we preferred V-V connection over T-T connection why?
30) Suspension type insulator is used whn?
a) high voltage b) low voltage
c) oscillating voltage d) steady voltage
31) One question based on Norton’s theorem?
32) One question based on inverted-V curve of synch motor.
33) one question based on load saturation curve.
34) There were 4 question like if A*B represent A is the son of B, some like that
35) Some questions from BAR-GRAPHS
36) Some questions from probability.
37) Some questions from Data–interpretation
3
Some questions from diodes.39) One question from winding design for motor (find value of commutator segment)
Friday, August 8, 2008
APPTITUDE QUIZ
APPTITUDE QUIZ
1. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12
7
9
10
13
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728
12
11
10
9
8
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?
15
16
18
12
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?
AE=12
AE=10
AE=15
AE=20
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?
9
7
8
6
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank
17 1/7 mins
20 mins
8 mins
NONE
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long.Find the area it can graze?
38.5 sq.m
155 sq.m
144 sq.m
19.25 sq.m
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top?
18 HRS
15 HRS
20 HRS
25 HRS
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current?
1/2 kmph
7/12 kmph
5 kmph
none of these
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ?
991
919
990
99
1. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12
7
9
10
13
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728
12
11
10
9
8
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?
15
16
18
12
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?
AE=12
AE=10
AE=15
AE=20
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?
9
7
8
6
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank
17 1/7 mins
20 mins
8 mins
NONE
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long.Find the area it can graze?
38.5 sq.m
155 sq.m
144 sq.m
19.25 sq.m
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top?
18 HRS
15 HRS
20 HRS
25 HRS
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current?
1/2 kmph
7/12 kmph
5 kmph
none of these
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ?
991
919
990
99
Wednesday, August 6, 2008
TCS PAPER ON 25th MARCH 2008 @ BHUBANESWAR
TCS PAPER ON 25th MARCH AT BHUBANESWAR
ONLINE TEST INSTRUCTIONS-
We had an online test. The instructions will be given by the TCS officials. Listen VERY CAREFULLY to the instructions. A silly mistake will prove very costly.
1. Open the internet explorer and type the address, given by TCS official, in the address bar.
2. The site opens and asks you login id and password. Those will also be provided to you.
3. Once you login, you might get a page ‘SAMPLE TEST’. Ignore it and click ‘GO TO MAIN TEST’ on that same page. Now your test starts.
4. The test has 3 sections of 20 mins, 30 mins and 40 mins. Test starts with section 1.
5. On the right top corner you will have a timer counting down and links to ques of that section. From the timer you can see the time left for that section and through the ques links you can move to any ques within that section only.
6. The ques links have 3 color codes- RED – NOT VISITED
ORANGE- VISITED BUT NOT ATTEMPTED
GREEN- ATTEMPTED
7. There will be two buttons at the bottom of the page- EXIT and SUBMIT
8. After answering a ques click the SUBMIT button to register your answer. You can always come back and change it within the stipulated time.
9. EXIT button takes you out of the section. So click it ONLY after you have attempted all ques of a section.
10. After you finish all 3 sections CLICK EXIT. DON’T close the main window WITHOUT clicking EXIT!
ONLINE TEST-
The test is divided into 3 sections. There is NO negative marking and NO sectional cut off.
1. Verbal ability-
This has 26 ques (10 synonym 10 antonym and 2 passages). Time limit is 20 minutes. Go through the following synonyms and antonyms
SYNONYMS
1. Physiognomy the practice of trying to judge character and mental qualities by observation of bodily, esp. facial, features
2. Repudiate disinherit, banish, renounce; discard, oust.
3. Mitigate alleviate, reduce, diminish, lessen, weaken, attenuate
4. Inundate overwhelm, overpower, overburden, overflow, overrun
5. Bilk cheat, defraud, exploit, fleece, deceive, trick
6. Nettle irritates, provoke, try someone's patience, annoy, incense
7. Impugn question, dispute, query, berate, criticize, denounce, censure
8. Mulch fertilize, fertilizer
9. Tenacity firmness, fastness, tightness, strength, force, forcefulness, power.
10. Sobriety soberness, seriousness, solemnest, solemnity, thoughtfulness, gravity, graveness, earnestness, calmness,
11. Misanthrope a person who hates or distrusts all people
12. Waif stray, foundling, orphan.
13. Hamper obstruct, impede, hold back, inhibit, retard, slow down
14. Retrograde worsening, deteriorating, declining
15 Despondent hopeless, downcast, cast down, down, low, disheartened
16. Debacle downfall, collapse
17. Tarry delay, dawdle, dally, wait; linger loiter.
18. Incontinent. unrestrained, unbridled, unchecked, uncurbed, ungoverned,
19. Nebulous shapeless, unformed, amorphous, shadowy, dim, indistinct
20. Paradox mystery, enigma, ambiguity; puzzle
21. Hidebound narrow-minded, narrow, intolerant, conventional
22. Lacklustre bland, insipid, vapid, dull, flat, dry, prosaic
23. Moribund near death, near the end, breathing one's last, fading fast
WHIMSICAL: unusual and not serious in a way that is either amusing or annoying.
CENSURE: criticism
OPTIMUM: the best possible
MISAPPREHENSION: wrong idea bout sth
CANDID: frank, saying wat u feel openly, not hiding ones thought
TERSE: using few words and often not seeming polite or friendly
CITE: to mention sth as a reason or eq to support wat u r saying
EFFUSIVE: showing too much of emotion, overenthusiastic
IRRADIATE: Radiate (darken)
TENACIOUS: firm, stubborn
VOLUBLE: talkative
BANAL: commonplace, trite, saying sth too often so that it becomes common
RUPTURE: a situation in which sth breaks
STANDING: status, existing or arranged permanently
NASCENT: emerging, budding
TRANSIENT: continuing fr a short time
CLUTCH: to hold sth tightly
GENERIC: general, (specific)
EMPIRICAL: based on exp n experiments rather than ideas
ANOMALY: abnormality, glitch
CIRCUITOUS: long n not direct
HAMPER: hinder
SURVEILLANCE: observation, watch
OBJECTIVE: purpose
RAUCOUS: harsh, rasping
VORACIOUS: greedy, hungry
PEDIGREE: ancestry, derivation
FIDELITY: loyalty, commitment
AUGMENT: to increase the amnt, value of sth
PRECARIOUS: not safe or certain, dangerous, uncertain (stable)
ALACRITY: great willingness or enthusiasm
DEROGATORY: insulting
ONUS: the responsibility fr sth
ANALOGUE: thing similar to another thing
EXPEDIENT: useful fr a particular purpose but not always fair or rite
ANALOGOUS similar in some way therefore able to be compared
ASSUAGE: to make un unpleasant feeling less severe
COMPLIANCE: practice or obeying rules or request made by the authority
DIFFIDENT: shy (bold)
PLAINTIVE: sounding sad, lamenting
INSINUATE: hint, intimate
MISDEMEANOR: an action that is bad or unacceptable but not serious
EXONERATE: to officially state that sb is not responsible fr sth they ve been blamed fr
GREGARIOUS: sociable
ANATHEMATIZE: curse (bless)
BENIGN: kind n gentle
ATTENUATE: to make sth weaker of less effective
SONOROUS: having a pleasant full deep sound
BOLSTER: to improve sth or make it more stronger
DIVERGENT: to go in a diff way..opinion
DECOLLATE: the top edge of womens dress etc
HETERODOX: not following the usual opinion (unorthodox)
RESTIVENESS: able to stay still
IGNONIMOUS: dishonor, deep disgrace
PLAGIARIZE: steal another's ideas and pass them as one's own
EFFIGY: a statue of famous person
TENACIOUS: determined, persistent
RETROGRADE: making a situation worse or returning to how sth was in past
SACROSANCT: that is considered to be too important to change or question
DANGLE: to hang or swing freely
CRYPTIC: with a meaning that is hidden or not easily understood
DEBILITATE: to make sth weak
DIVULGE: reveal. to give some info that is considered to be secret
SCEPTIC: a person that usually doubts claims that r true specially that others believe in
SPENDTHRIFT: who spends too much money
SPECULATE: to form opinion without knwing the details or facts
INDIGENOUS: native
ERRONIUS: not correct
EQUIVOCATE: to talk bout sth in a way that is deliberately not clear in order to avoid or hide the truth
MINION: servant
VERACITY: truthfulness, quality of telling truth
MITIGATE: to make sth less harmful or serious, alleviate
APEX: top or highest part of sth
APPAL: to shock sb very much
BRACKISH: salty in unpleasant way
COGENT strongly n clearly expressed in a way that influences wat people believe in
CONCEDE: to admit that sth is true, logical
CONCEIT: too much pride in urself n wat u do
CONCEAL: to hide sth
CONCEIVE: to form an idea in ur mind
LETHARGY: the state of not having energy to do things
TACITURN: tending not to say very much, in a way that seems unfriendly
Dwindle: to become less gradually.
Efface: to make sth disappear
Indignity: humiliation
Inept: acting or done with no skill
Infirmity: weakness or illness fr a long period of time
Harbinger forerunner, precursor, usher, announcer
Cacophony discord, dissonance, discordance, jarring, stridency
Divulge disclose, reveal, make known, tell, impart, communicate, publish
Clutch grasp, clasp, hold; grip
Prolific fertile, fruitful, fecund, luxuriant, abundant, profuse
Jaded fatigued, worn-out, wearied; bored, tired
Mite parasite, bug, tick; insect, vermin
Buxom obust, vigorous; healthy ,fat
Foray venture; attack , venture
Deponent witness
admonish : usurp
meager : scanty
alienate: estrange
merry : gay
brim: boarder
obstinate: stubborn
adhesive: tenacious
tranquil : serene
solicit: urge
furtive : stealthy
misery: distress
volume: quantity
hamper : obstruct
veer : diverge
belief: conviction
incentive: merit
inert: passive
concur: acquise
cargo: freight
dispel: scatter
caprice: whim
heap: to pile
covet: crave
emancipate: liberate
instigate: incite
latitude: scope
lethargy: stupor
divulge: discretion
hover: linger
embrace: effigy
baffle: frustate
lament:
stiffle: snithy
subside: wane
confiscate: appropriate
discretion: prudence
efface: deliberate
latent: potential
1. Depreciation: deflation, depression, devaluation, fall, slump
2. Deprecate: feel and express disapproval,
3. Incentive: thing one encourages one to do (stimulus)
4. Echelon: level of authority or responsibility
5. Innovation: make changes or introduce new things
6. Intermittent: externally stopping and then starting
7. Detrimental: harmful
8. Conciliation: make less angry or more friendly
9. Orthodox: conventional or traditional, superstitious
10. Fallible: liable to error
11. Volatile: ever changing
12. Manifest: clear and obvious
13. Connotation: suggest or implied meaning of expression
14. Reciprocal: reverse or opposite
15. Agrarian: related to agriculture
16. Vacillate: undecided or dilemma
17. Expedient: fitting proper, desirable
18. Simulate: produce artificially resembling an existing one.
19. Access: to approah
20. Compensation: salary
21. Truncate: shorten by cutting
22. Adherence: stick
23. Heterogeneous: non similar things
24. Surplus: excessive
25. Assess: determine the amount or value
26. Cognizance: knowledge
27. Retrospective: review
28. Naive: innocent, rustic
29. Equivocate: tallying on both sides, lie, mislead
30. Postulate: frame a theory
31. Latent: dormant, secret
32. Fluctuation: wavering,
33. Eliminate: to reduce
34. Affinity: strong liking
35. Expedite: hasten
36. Console: to show sympathy
37. Adversary: opposition
38. Affable: lovable or approachable
39. Decomposition: rotten
40. Egregious: apart from the crowd, especially bad
41. Conglomeration: group, collection
42. Aberration: deviation
43. Augury: prediction
44. Credibility: ability to common belief, quality of being credible
45. Coincident: incidentally
46. Constituent : accompanying
47. Differential : having or showing or making use of
48. Litigation : engaging in a law suit
49. Maratorium: legally or offficiallly determined period of dealy before fulfillment of the agreement of paying of debts.
50. Negotiate: discuss or bargain
51. Preparation: act of preparing
52. Preponderant: superiority of power or quality
53. Relevance: quality of being relevant
54. Apparatus: appliances
55. Ignorance: blindness, in experience
56. Obsession: complex enthusiasm
57. Precipitate: speed,active
Pillage – steal , loot , plunder
Cleft - split , crack
Incesment –
Brazen - bold , shameless
Awry - skewed , twisted , crooked
Remiss – careless , negligent
Defection - desertion
Ensue - follow
Avid - keen , eager
Rupidiate Repudiate - reject,deny
Gauche - clumsy, vulgar
Intrinsic - essential
Gaudy – flashy , showy
Hidebound – narrow minded
Incognitent -
Intermittent – irregular,broken
Clastrophobia - fear
Contraband – illegal trade
Pagm concealed rapt
Voracious – avid,hunger,greedy
Seedy – sleazy,seamy
Omniscience – knowing all
Diatribe – attack,criticism
Felicitous – fortunate,luck
Relish – enjoy,savor
Aloofness – unfriendliness, remoteness
Ambiguity - unknown
Pattry
Baleful – threatening, malevolent
Odium – hatred, disgust
Lapidarian
Gambol - skip
High handed – dominant,imperious
Retrospection - perception
Antithe
Pagan
Genuflect – kneel,bow
coerce – force,compel
Indubitably – undoubtedly, certainly
Extraneous – irrelevant , unrelated
Corpulent – fat,pump
Transient – momentary
Spurious – false,fake
Whimsical - fancy
Braggadocio -
Chimerical
Callow – inexperience,naive
Menial – unskilled,boring
Indigenous – native,original
Ambiguity
Foil – frustrate,halt
Censure - fault, criticize
Optimum- best, most favorable
Candid- frank, open, blunt, upfront, forth-right
Cite - quote, name, mention, refer to, allude to
Effusive - demonstrative, fussy, talkative, overenthusiastic,vociferous, extroverted
Voluble - articulate, vociferous, talkative
Banal - commonplace, trivial, predictable, trite, hackneyed
Standing - rank, permanent, position, duration, status, reputation, eminence
Nascent - budding, emerging, blossoming, embryonic
Clutch - grasp, grab, hold
Generic - general, basic, common
Empirical -experimental, pragmatic, practical
Anomaly - irregularity, glitch, difference
Circuitous - roundabout, twisty, meandering, indirect, winding, tortuous
Surveillance - observation, watch, shadowing
Objective - aim, impartial, real, purpose, goal
Raucous - rough, wild, hoarse, guttering
Voracious - insatiable, avid, hungry, big, rapacious, greedy
Pedigree - rare-breed, full-blooded, lineage
Fidelity - loyalty, reliability
Augment - supplement, boost, add to, bump up
Precarious - unstable, shaky, risky, uncertain
Derogatory - disparaging, critical, insulting, offensive
Onus - responsibility, burden, obligation, duty
Analogous - similar, akin, related
Expedient - measure, convenient, device, maneuver
Compliance - fulfillment, obedience
Diffident - shy, insecure, timid
Plaintive - mournful, sad, melancholic, nostalgic, lamenting
Insinuate - imply, suggest, make-out, ingratiate yourself
Misdemeanor - wrong, sin, crime, offense
Exonerate - clear, forgive, absolve
Gregarious - outgoing, extroverted, sociable, expressive, unreserved
Benign - kind, benevolent, compassionate
Attenuate - satisfy, calm, soothe, ease
Sonorous - loud, deep, resonant, echoing
Bolster - boost, strengthen, reinforce, encourage
Heterodox - unorthodox, dissenting, contrary to accepted belief,heretical, deviating
Restiveness - impatience, restlessness, nervousness
Effigy - image, statue, model
Retrograde - retrospective, traditional, conservative, nostalgic, forward-looking (antonym)
Sacrosanct - sacred, holy, revered
Dangle - hang down, sway, droop, swing, suspend
Cryptic -mysterious, enigmatic, puzzling, hidden
Debilitate - incapacitate, weaken, hamper, encumber, hinder
Divulge - reveal, disclose
Spendthrift - wastrel, squanderer, compulsive shopper
Indigenous -native, original, local
Erroneous - mistaken, flawed, incorrect
Minion - follower, subordinate, underling, gofer
Veracity - reality, truth, sincerity.
Q No. 1 GARRULOUS
(a) Arid (b) Hasty (c) Sociable (d) Quaint (e) Talkative
Q No. 2 INTER
(a) Bury (b) Amuse (c) Relate (d) Frequent (e) Abandon
Q No. 3 CHIMERICAL
(a) Developing (b) Brief (c) Distant (d) Economical (e) Fantastic
Q No. 4 BROCHURE
(a) Opening (b) Pamphlet (c) Censor (d) Bureau (e) Pin
Q No. 5 EQUANIMITY
(a) Clamour (b) Disparity (c) Composure (d) Propensity (e) Indivisibility
Q No. 6 GALLEON
(a) Liquid measure (b) Ship (c) Armada (d) Company (e) Printer’s proof
Q No. 7 REGAL
(a) Oppressive (b) Royal (c) Major (d) Basic (e) Entertain
Q No. 8 MUSTY
(a) Stale (b) Necessary (c) Indifferent (d) Nonchalant (e) Vivid
Q No. 9 INDIGNITY
(a) Pomposity (b) Bombast (c) Obeisance (d) Insult (e) Message
Q No. 10 CANDID
(a) Vague (b) Outspoken (c) Experience (d) Anxious (e) Sallow
Q No. 1 CONTROVERT
(a) Turn over (b) Contradict (c) Mind (d) Explain (e) Swing
Q No. 2 MIRAGE
(a) Dessert (b) Illusion (c) Water (d) Mirror (e) Statement
Q No. 3 INTERDICT
(a) Acclaim (b) Dispute (c) Prohibit (d) Decide (e) Fret
Q No. 4 INCONTINENT
(a) Insular (b) Complaisant (c) Grass (d) Wanton (e) Faults
Q No. 5 GADFLY
(a) Humourist (b) Nuisance (c) Scholar (d) Bum (e) Thief
Q No. 6 DECIMATE
(a) Kill (b) Disgrace (c) Search (d) Collide (e) Deride
Q No. 7 MESMERIZE
(a) Remember (b) Hypnotize (c) Delay (d) Bore (e) Analyze
Q No. 8 SEDATE
(a) Unify (b) Immunize (c) Tranquilize (d) Stimulate (e) Injure
Q No. 9 DECOROUS
(a) momentary (b) Emotional (c) Suppressed (d) Proper (e) Unexpected
Q No. 10 REPUGNANCE
(a) belligerence (b) Tenacity (c) Renewal (d) Pity (e) Loathing
Q No. 1 CLEFT
(a) Split (b) Waterfall (c) Assembly (d) Adherence (e) Surplus
Q No. 2 ISOTROPIC
(a) Feeling cold (b) Being isolated (c) Showing warm (d) Having uniformity (e) Creating wealth
Q No. 3 TAWDRY
(a) Orderly (b) Meretricious (c) Reclaimed (d) Filtered (e) Proper
Q No. 4 FURTIVE
(a) Underhanded (b) Coy (c) Brilliant (d) Quick (e) Abortive
Q No. 5 EQUANIMITY
(a) Clamour (b) Disparity (c) Composure (d) Propensity (e) Indivisibility
Q No. 6 INCRIMINATE
(a) Exacerbate (b) Involve (c) Intimidate (d) Lacerate (e) Prevaricate
Q No. 7 INTREPID
(a) Cold (b) Hot (c) Understood (d) Callow (e) Courageous
Q No. 8 INNOCUOUS
(a) Not capable (b) Not dangerous (c) Not eager (d) Not frank (e) Not peaceful
Q No. 9 TRANSLUCENT
(a) Clear (b) Opaque (c) Movement (d) Efficient (e) Telepathy
Q No. 10 BRACKISH
(a) Careful (b) Salty (c) Chosen (d) Tough (e) Wet
ANTONYMS:
Q No. 11 REPUDIATE
(a) Hesitant (b) Neutrality (c) Admit (d) Polite (e) Incongruity
Q No. 12 CREDIT
(a) Believe false (b) Treat as equal (c) Make more difficult (d) Underemphasize (e) Irresolute
Q No. 13 TENACIOUS
(a) Fast-running (b) Intention (c) Obnoxious (d) Holding fast (e) Irresolute
Q No. 14 PRECIPITATE
(a) Intricate (b) Devious (c) Posthumous (d) Dilatory (e) Contradictory
Q No. 15 QUIXOTIC
(a) Slow (b) Abstemious (c) Pragmatic (d) Benevolent (e) Grave
Q No. 16 ADMONITION
(a) Premonition (b) Hallucination (c) Escape (d) Commendation (e) Trepidation
Q No. 17 PROCLIVITY
(a) Prodigality (b) Avoidance (c) Credence (d) Calumny (e) Inception
Q No. 18 OMNISCIENCE
(a) Power (b) Extravagance (c) Magnanimity (d) Conscience (e) Ignorance
Q No. 19 PRECIPITIOUS
(a) Cooperative (b) Cautious (c) Inaccurate (d) Formal (e) Simplistic
Q No. 20 PROTRACT
(a) Defy (b) Supplement (c) Postpone (d) Shorten (e) Design
Q No. 11 TANTAMOUNT
(a) Not negotiable (b) not equivalent (c) Not ambitious (d) Not evident (e) Not relevant
Q No. 12 ABIDE
(a) Retract an offer (b) Refuse to endure (c) Shield from harm (d) Exonerate (e) Welcome
Q No. 13 PROSPEROUS
(a) Disengage (b) Impoverished (c) Refute thoroughly (d) Answer hypothetically (e) Consider genuinely
Q No. 14 VOUCHSAFE
(a) Postpone (b) Dissemble (c) Endanger (d) Prohibit (e) Justify
Q No. 15 CAVIL
(a) Discern (b) Disclose (c) Introduce (d) Flatter (e) Commend
Q No. 16 BOORISH
(a) Juvenile (b) Well mannered (c) Weak minded (d) Unique (e) Concealed
Q No. 17 ANTITHETICAL
(a) Qualitative (b) Unnatural (c) Deceptive (d) Supportive (e) Noncommittal
Q No. 18 REVILE
(a) Compose (b) Awake (c) Deaden (d) Praise (e) Secrete
Q No. 19 DESULTORY
(a) Apologetic (b) Independent (c) Laudatory (d) Questionable (e) Methodical
Q No. 20 ASSUAGE
(a) Wane (b) Belie (c) Worsen (d) Intervene (e) Presume
Q No. 11 COMPLY
(a) Simplify (b) Strive (c) Rebel (d) Unite (e) Appreciate
Q No. 12 RETROSPECTION
(a) Introversion (b) Deliberation (c) Anticipation (d) Gregariousness (e) Equivocation
Q No. 13 HAPLESS
(a) Fortuitous (b) Fortunate (c) Fortifield (d) Forbidden (e) Forestalled
Q No. 14 PRECIPITATE
(a) Intricate (b) Devious (c) posthumous (d) Dilatory (e) Contradictory
Q No. 15 SEDULOUS
(a) Tangential (b) Rampant (c) Esoteric (d) Morose (e) Indolent
Q No. 16 HAMPER
(a) Feed (b) Animate (c) Facilitate (d) Treat lightly (e) Caution tactfully
Q No. 17 URBANE
(a) Civic (b) Remote (c) Deceptive (d) Conventional (e) Naive
Q No. 18 DISINGEOUS
(a) Naive (b) Accurate (c) Hostile (d) Witty (e) Polite
Q No. 19 TRACTABLE
(a) Incoherent (b) Advisable (c) Simplistic (d) Influential (e) Uncooperative
Q No. 20 PROPITIOUS
(a) Adjacent (b) Clandestine (c) Contentious (d) Unfavourable (e) Coy
2. Quantitative analysis:
All ques were repeated from previous years. Practice all previous years ques and you will sail through by this section only. Prepare the following ques well:
1. Standard deviation problem
2. g(0)=1 g(1)= -1 g(6)=?
3. File transfer in bucket problem
4. Aero plane with latitude and longitude problem
5. River and power cable problem
6. Orthogonal pair problem
7. Power of 2/ power of 3 problem
8. x and y values are given. Relation between them
9. Edges, faces, vertices of a cube
10. Class mark final mark problem
11. Picking odd ones out from computer terms
12. Modular, truncation, round off problem
13. Division of physics terms and finding end unit
14. Word coding
15. Largest prime number to fit in a given bit memory
3. Critical reasoning:
Go through Barron’s 12th edition mock tests for reasoning. Go through all the reasoning ques. IGNORE THEM AT YOUR OWN PERIL! Some important passages are:
Model test 1: Section5 - qns 1-4 (motorist), qns 13-16 (red and brown) Section6 - qns 1-4 (conservative,democratic), qns 8-11 (latin, sanskrit), qns 12-18 (joe,larry,ned), qns 19-22 (a causes b)
Model test 2: Section1 - qns 19-22 (wallachia and rumelia) ---i got this qn, but the names were changed as london and paris , and a,b,c etc were changed as french, italian etc.Section6 - qns 8-12 ( ashland , liverpool), qns 13-16 (spelunker) ---i got this qn, qns 17-22 (pesth) ---i got this one too
Model test 3: Section6 - qns 1-4 (all Gs are Hs)
Model test 4: Section5 - qns 8-11 (horizontal row), qns 19-22 (a,b,c cause d) Section6 - qns 8-12 (spanish, italian), qns 13-16 (all As, Bs), qns 17-22 (progressive federal party)
Model test 5: Section3 - qns8-11 (museum), qns 19-22 (A is the father) Section7- qns 1-5 (prahtu, brahtu), qns 21-25 (scurvy)
INTERVIEW-
We had just 1 combined tech and HR interview. You might have 2 rounds. For tech interview my sincere advice is that BE THOROUGH WITH YOUR BRANCH SUBJECTS! Out of the 4 computer subjects(c, c++, ds and rdbms) prepare any one thoroughly and atleast the basics of other 3.
For HR interview prepare some general ques like:
1. Tell me about yourself
2. Strength and weakness
3. Why TCS
4. Why IT (for non-stream students)
5. Where you see yourself after 5 years
6. Hobbies and interests
7. Your idol and why
INTERVIEW TIPS-
1. Dress properly
2. ALWAYS have a smile on your face
3. Be confident and enthusiastic
4. ALWAYS be polite and humble
5. NEVER bluff. If you don’t know something tell them politely
6. ALWAYS try to lead the interview
7. During tech interview, ALWAYS explain them the concept. This will also show them your communication skill.
8. NEVER EVER argue with the interviewer
ONLINE TEST INSTRUCTIONS-
We had an online test. The instructions will be given by the TCS officials. Listen VERY CAREFULLY to the instructions. A silly mistake will prove very costly.
1. Open the internet explorer and type the address, given by TCS official, in the address bar.
2. The site opens and asks you login id and password. Those will also be provided to you.
3. Once you login, you might get a page ‘SAMPLE TEST’. Ignore it and click ‘GO TO MAIN TEST’ on that same page. Now your test starts.
4. The test has 3 sections of 20 mins, 30 mins and 40 mins. Test starts with section 1.
5. On the right top corner you will have a timer counting down and links to ques of that section. From the timer you can see the time left for that section and through the ques links you can move to any ques within that section only.
6. The ques links have 3 color codes- RED – NOT VISITED
ORANGE- VISITED BUT NOT ATTEMPTED
GREEN- ATTEMPTED
7. There will be two buttons at the bottom of the page- EXIT and SUBMIT
8. After answering a ques click the SUBMIT button to register your answer. You can always come back and change it within the stipulated time.
9. EXIT button takes you out of the section. So click it ONLY after you have attempted all ques of a section.
10. After you finish all 3 sections CLICK EXIT. DON’T close the main window WITHOUT clicking EXIT!
ONLINE TEST-
The test is divided into 3 sections. There is NO negative marking and NO sectional cut off.
1. Verbal ability-
This has 26 ques (10 synonym 10 antonym and 2 passages). Time limit is 20 minutes. Go through the following synonyms and antonyms
SYNONYMS
1. Physiognomy the practice of trying to judge character and mental qualities by observation of bodily, esp. facial, features
2. Repudiate disinherit, banish, renounce; discard, oust.
3. Mitigate alleviate, reduce, diminish, lessen, weaken, attenuate
4. Inundate overwhelm, overpower, overburden, overflow, overrun
5. Bilk cheat, defraud, exploit, fleece, deceive, trick
6. Nettle irritates, provoke, try someone's patience, annoy, incense
7. Impugn question, dispute, query, berate, criticize, denounce, censure
8. Mulch fertilize, fertilizer
9. Tenacity firmness, fastness, tightness, strength, force, forcefulness, power.
10. Sobriety soberness, seriousness, solemnest, solemnity, thoughtfulness, gravity, graveness, earnestness, calmness,
11. Misanthrope a person who hates or distrusts all people
12. Waif stray, foundling, orphan.
13. Hamper obstruct, impede, hold back, inhibit, retard, slow down
14. Retrograde worsening, deteriorating, declining
15 Despondent hopeless, downcast, cast down, down, low, disheartened
16. Debacle downfall, collapse
17. Tarry delay, dawdle, dally, wait; linger loiter.
18. Incontinent. unrestrained, unbridled, unchecked, uncurbed, ungoverned,
19. Nebulous shapeless, unformed, amorphous, shadowy, dim, indistinct
20. Paradox mystery, enigma, ambiguity; puzzle
21. Hidebound narrow-minded, narrow, intolerant, conventional
22. Lacklustre bland, insipid, vapid, dull, flat, dry, prosaic
23. Moribund near death, near the end, breathing one's last, fading fast
WHIMSICAL: unusual and not serious in a way that is either amusing or annoying.
CENSURE: criticism
OPTIMUM: the best possible
MISAPPREHENSION: wrong idea bout sth
CANDID: frank, saying wat u feel openly, not hiding ones thought
TERSE: using few words and often not seeming polite or friendly
CITE: to mention sth as a reason or eq to support wat u r saying
EFFUSIVE: showing too much of emotion, overenthusiastic
IRRADIATE: Radiate (darken)
TENACIOUS: firm, stubborn
VOLUBLE: talkative
BANAL: commonplace, trite, saying sth too often so that it becomes common
RUPTURE: a situation in which sth breaks
STANDING: status, existing or arranged permanently
NASCENT: emerging, budding
TRANSIENT: continuing fr a short time
CLUTCH: to hold sth tightly
GENERIC: general, (specific)
EMPIRICAL: based on exp n experiments rather than ideas
ANOMALY: abnormality, glitch
CIRCUITOUS: long n not direct
HAMPER: hinder
SURVEILLANCE: observation, watch
OBJECTIVE: purpose
RAUCOUS: harsh, rasping
VORACIOUS: greedy, hungry
PEDIGREE: ancestry, derivation
FIDELITY: loyalty, commitment
AUGMENT: to increase the amnt, value of sth
PRECARIOUS: not safe or certain, dangerous, uncertain (stable)
ALACRITY: great willingness or enthusiasm
DEROGATORY: insulting
ONUS: the responsibility fr sth
ANALOGUE: thing similar to another thing
EXPEDIENT: useful fr a particular purpose but not always fair or rite
ANALOGOUS similar in some way therefore able to be compared
ASSUAGE: to make un unpleasant feeling less severe
COMPLIANCE: practice or obeying rules or request made by the authority
DIFFIDENT: shy (bold)
PLAINTIVE: sounding sad, lamenting
INSINUATE: hint, intimate
MISDEMEANOR: an action that is bad or unacceptable but not serious
EXONERATE: to officially state that sb is not responsible fr sth they ve been blamed fr
GREGARIOUS: sociable
ANATHEMATIZE: curse (bless)
BENIGN: kind n gentle
ATTENUATE: to make sth weaker of less effective
SONOROUS: having a pleasant full deep sound
BOLSTER: to improve sth or make it more stronger
DIVERGENT: to go in a diff way..opinion
DECOLLATE: the top edge of womens dress etc
HETERODOX: not following the usual opinion (unorthodox)
RESTIVENESS: able to stay still
IGNONIMOUS: dishonor, deep disgrace
PLAGIARIZE: steal another's ideas and pass them as one's own
EFFIGY: a statue of famous person
TENACIOUS: determined, persistent
RETROGRADE: making a situation worse or returning to how sth was in past
SACROSANCT: that is considered to be too important to change or question
DANGLE: to hang or swing freely
CRYPTIC: with a meaning that is hidden or not easily understood
DEBILITATE: to make sth weak
DIVULGE: reveal. to give some info that is considered to be secret
SCEPTIC: a person that usually doubts claims that r true specially that others believe in
SPENDTHRIFT: who spends too much money
SPECULATE: to form opinion without knwing the details or facts
INDIGENOUS: native
ERRONIUS: not correct
EQUIVOCATE: to talk bout sth in a way that is deliberately not clear in order to avoid or hide the truth
MINION: servant
VERACITY: truthfulness, quality of telling truth
MITIGATE: to make sth less harmful or serious, alleviate
APEX: top or highest part of sth
APPAL: to shock sb very much
BRACKISH: salty in unpleasant way
COGENT strongly n clearly expressed in a way that influences wat people believe in
CONCEDE: to admit that sth is true, logical
CONCEIT: too much pride in urself n wat u do
CONCEAL: to hide sth
CONCEIVE: to form an idea in ur mind
LETHARGY: the state of not having energy to do things
TACITURN: tending not to say very much, in a way that seems unfriendly
Dwindle: to become less gradually.
Efface: to make sth disappear
Indignity: humiliation
Inept: acting or done with no skill
Infirmity: weakness or illness fr a long period of time
Harbinger forerunner, precursor, usher, announcer
Cacophony discord, dissonance, discordance, jarring, stridency
Divulge disclose, reveal, make known, tell, impart, communicate, publish
Clutch grasp, clasp, hold; grip
Prolific fertile, fruitful, fecund, luxuriant, abundant, profuse
Jaded fatigued, worn-out, wearied; bored, tired
Mite parasite, bug, tick; insect, vermin
Buxom obust, vigorous; healthy ,fat
Foray venture; attack , venture
Deponent witness
admonish : usurp
meager : scanty
alienate: estrange
merry : gay
brim: boarder
obstinate: stubborn
adhesive: tenacious
tranquil : serene
solicit: urge
furtive : stealthy
misery: distress
volume: quantity
hamper : obstruct
veer : diverge
belief: conviction
incentive: merit
inert: passive
concur: acquise
cargo: freight
dispel: scatter
caprice: whim
heap: to pile
covet: crave
emancipate: liberate
instigate: incite
latitude: scope
lethargy: stupor
divulge: discretion
hover: linger
embrace: effigy
baffle: frustate
lament:
stiffle: snithy
subside: wane
confiscate: appropriate
discretion: prudence
efface: deliberate
latent: potential
1. Depreciation: deflation, depression, devaluation, fall, slump
2. Deprecate: feel and express disapproval,
3. Incentive: thing one encourages one to do (stimulus)
4. Echelon: level of authority or responsibility
5. Innovation: make changes or introduce new things
6. Intermittent: externally stopping and then starting
7. Detrimental: harmful
8. Conciliation: make less angry or more friendly
9. Orthodox: conventional or traditional, superstitious
10. Fallible: liable to error
11. Volatile: ever changing
12. Manifest: clear and obvious
13. Connotation: suggest or implied meaning of expression
14. Reciprocal: reverse or opposite
15. Agrarian: related to agriculture
16. Vacillate: undecided or dilemma
17. Expedient: fitting proper, desirable
18. Simulate: produce artificially resembling an existing one.
19. Access: to approah
20. Compensation: salary
21. Truncate: shorten by cutting
22. Adherence: stick
23. Heterogeneous: non similar things
24. Surplus: excessive
25. Assess: determine the amount or value
26. Cognizance: knowledge
27. Retrospective: review
28. Naive: innocent, rustic
29. Equivocate: tallying on both sides, lie, mislead
30. Postulate: frame a theory
31. Latent: dormant, secret
32. Fluctuation: wavering,
33. Eliminate: to reduce
34. Affinity: strong liking
35. Expedite: hasten
36. Console: to show sympathy
37. Adversary: opposition
38. Affable: lovable or approachable
39. Decomposition: rotten
40. Egregious: apart from the crowd, especially bad
41. Conglomeration: group, collection
42. Aberration: deviation
43. Augury: prediction
44. Credibility: ability to common belief, quality of being credible
45. Coincident: incidentally
46. Constituent : accompanying
47. Differential : having or showing or making use of
48. Litigation : engaging in a law suit
49. Maratorium: legally or offficiallly determined period of dealy before fulfillment of the agreement of paying of debts.
50. Negotiate: discuss or bargain
51. Preparation: act of preparing
52. Preponderant: superiority of power or quality
53. Relevance: quality of being relevant
54. Apparatus: appliances
55. Ignorance: blindness, in experience
56. Obsession: complex enthusiasm
57. Precipitate: speed,active
Pillage – steal , loot , plunder
Cleft - split , crack
Incesment –
Brazen - bold , shameless
Awry - skewed , twisted , crooked
Remiss – careless , negligent
Defection - desertion
Ensue - follow
Avid - keen , eager
Rupidiate Repudiate - reject,deny
Gauche - clumsy, vulgar
Intrinsic - essential
Gaudy – flashy , showy
Hidebound – narrow minded
Incognitent -
Intermittent – irregular,broken
Clastrophobia - fear
Contraband – illegal trade
Pagm concealed rapt
Voracious – avid,hunger,greedy
Seedy – sleazy,seamy
Omniscience – knowing all
Diatribe – attack,criticism
Felicitous – fortunate,luck
Relish – enjoy,savor
Aloofness – unfriendliness, remoteness
Ambiguity - unknown
Pattry
Baleful – threatening, malevolent
Odium – hatred, disgust
Lapidarian
Gambol - skip
High handed – dominant,imperious
Retrospection - perception
Antithe
Pagan
Genuflect – kneel,bow
coerce – force,compel
Indubitably – undoubtedly, certainly
Extraneous – irrelevant , unrelated
Corpulent – fat,pump
Transient – momentary
Spurious – false,fake
Whimsical - fancy
Braggadocio -
Chimerical
Callow – inexperience,naive
Menial – unskilled,boring
Indigenous – native,original
Ambiguity
Foil – frustrate,halt
Censure - fault, criticize
Optimum- best, most favorable
Candid- frank, open, blunt, upfront, forth-right
Cite - quote, name, mention, refer to, allude to
Effusive - demonstrative, fussy, talkative, overenthusiastic,vociferous, extroverted
Voluble - articulate, vociferous, talkative
Banal - commonplace, trivial, predictable, trite, hackneyed
Standing - rank, permanent, position, duration, status, reputation, eminence
Nascent - budding, emerging, blossoming, embryonic
Clutch - grasp, grab, hold
Generic - general, basic, common
Empirical -experimental, pragmatic, practical
Anomaly - irregularity, glitch, difference
Circuitous - roundabout, twisty, meandering, indirect, winding, tortuous
Surveillance - observation, watch, shadowing
Objective - aim, impartial, real, purpose, goal
Raucous - rough, wild, hoarse, guttering
Voracious - insatiable, avid, hungry, big, rapacious, greedy
Pedigree - rare-breed, full-blooded, lineage
Fidelity - loyalty, reliability
Augment - supplement, boost, add to, bump up
Precarious - unstable, shaky, risky, uncertain
Derogatory - disparaging, critical, insulting, offensive
Onus - responsibility, burden, obligation, duty
Analogous - similar, akin, related
Expedient - measure, convenient, device, maneuver
Compliance - fulfillment, obedience
Diffident - shy, insecure, timid
Plaintive - mournful, sad, melancholic, nostalgic, lamenting
Insinuate - imply, suggest, make-out, ingratiate yourself
Misdemeanor - wrong, sin, crime, offense
Exonerate - clear, forgive, absolve
Gregarious - outgoing, extroverted, sociable, expressive, unreserved
Benign - kind, benevolent, compassionate
Attenuate - satisfy, calm, soothe, ease
Sonorous - loud, deep, resonant, echoing
Bolster - boost, strengthen, reinforce, encourage
Heterodox - unorthodox, dissenting, contrary to accepted belief,heretical, deviating
Restiveness - impatience, restlessness, nervousness
Effigy - image, statue, model
Retrograde - retrospective, traditional, conservative, nostalgic, forward-looking (antonym)
Sacrosanct - sacred, holy, revered
Dangle - hang down, sway, droop, swing, suspend
Cryptic -mysterious, enigmatic, puzzling, hidden
Debilitate - incapacitate, weaken, hamper, encumber, hinder
Divulge - reveal, disclose
Spendthrift - wastrel, squanderer, compulsive shopper
Indigenous -native, original, local
Erroneous - mistaken, flawed, incorrect
Minion - follower, subordinate, underling, gofer
Veracity - reality, truth, sincerity.
Q No. 1 GARRULOUS
(a) Arid (b) Hasty (c) Sociable (d) Quaint (e) Talkative
Q No. 2 INTER
(a) Bury (b) Amuse (c) Relate (d) Frequent (e) Abandon
Q No. 3 CHIMERICAL
(a) Developing (b) Brief (c) Distant (d) Economical (e) Fantastic
Q No. 4 BROCHURE
(a) Opening (b) Pamphlet (c) Censor (d) Bureau (e) Pin
Q No. 5 EQUANIMITY
(a) Clamour (b) Disparity (c) Composure (d) Propensity (e) Indivisibility
Q No. 6 GALLEON
(a) Liquid measure (b) Ship (c) Armada (d) Company (e) Printer’s proof
Q No. 7 REGAL
(a) Oppressive (b) Royal (c) Major (d) Basic (e) Entertain
Q No. 8 MUSTY
(a) Stale (b) Necessary (c) Indifferent (d) Nonchalant (e) Vivid
Q No. 9 INDIGNITY
(a) Pomposity (b) Bombast (c) Obeisance (d) Insult (e) Message
Q No. 10 CANDID
(a) Vague (b) Outspoken (c) Experience (d) Anxious (e) Sallow
Q No. 1 CONTROVERT
(a) Turn over (b) Contradict (c) Mind (d) Explain (e) Swing
Q No. 2 MIRAGE
(a) Dessert (b) Illusion (c) Water (d) Mirror (e) Statement
Q No. 3 INTERDICT
(a) Acclaim (b) Dispute (c) Prohibit (d) Decide (e) Fret
Q No. 4 INCONTINENT
(a) Insular (b) Complaisant (c) Grass (d) Wanton (e) Faults
Q No. 5 GADFLY
(a) Humourist (b) Nuisance (c) Scholar (d) Bum (e) Thief
Q No. 6 DECIMATE
(a) Kill (b) Disgrace (c) Search (d) Collide (e) Deride
Q No. 7 MESMERIZE
(a) Remember (b) Hypnotize (c) Delay (d) Bore (e) Analyze
Q No. 8 SEDATE
(a) Unify (b) Immunize (c) Tranquilize (d) Stimulate (e) Injure
Q No. 9 DECOROUS
(a) momentary (b) Emotional (c) Suppressed (d) Proper (e) Unexpected
Q No. 10 REPUGNANCE
(a) belligerence (b) Tenacity (c) Renewal (d) Pity (e) Loathing
Q No. 1 CLEFT
(a) Split (b) Waterfall (c) Assembly (d) Adherence (e) Surplus
Q No. 2 ISOTROPIC
(a) Feeling cold (b) Being isolated (c) Showing warm (d) Having uniformity (e) Creating wealth
Q No. 3 TAWDRY
(a) Orderly (b) Meretricious (c) Reclaimed (d) Filtered (e) Proper
Q No. 4 FURTIVE
(a) Underhanded (b) Coy (c) Brilliant (d) Quick (e) Abortive
Q No. 5 EQUANIMITY
(a) Clamour (b) Disparity (c) Composure (d) Propensity (e) Indivisibility
Q No. 6 INCRIMINATE
(a) Exacerbate (b) Involve (c) Intimidate (d) Lacerate (e) Prevaricate
Q No. 7 INTREPID
(a) Cold (b) Hot (c) Understood (d) Callow (e) Courageous
Q No. 8 INNOCUOUS
(a) Not capable (b) Not dangerous (c) Not eager (d) Not frank (e) Not peaceful
Q No. 9 TRANSLUCENT
(a) Clear (b) Opaque (c) Movement (d) Efficient (e) Telepathy
Q No. 10 BRACKISH
(a) Careful (b) Salty (c) Chosen (d) Tough (e) Wet
ANTONYMS:
Q No. 11 REPUDIATE
(a) Hesitant (b) Neutrality (c) Admit (d) Polite (e) Incongruity
Q No. 12 CREDIT
(a) Believe false (b) Treat as equal (c) Make more difficult (d) Underemphasize (e) Irresolute
Q No. 13 TENACIOUS
(a) Fast-running (b) Intention (c) Obnoxious (d) Holding fast (e) Irresolute
Q No. 14 PRECIPITATE
(a) Intricate (b) Devious (c) Posthumous (d) Dilatory (e) Contradictory
Q No. 15 QUIXOTIC
(a) Slow (b) Abstemious (c) Pragmatic (d) Benevolent (e) Grave
Q No. 16 ADMONITION
(a) Premonition (b) Hallucination (c) Escape (d) Commendation (e) Trepidation
Q No. 17 PROCLIVITY
(a) Prodigality (b) Avoidance (c) Credence (d) Calumny (e) Inception
Q No. 18 OMNISCIENCE
(a) Power (b) Extravagance (c) Magnanimity (d) Conscience (e) Ignorance
Q No. 19 PRECIPITIOUS
(a) Cooperative (b) Cautious (c) Inaccurate (d) Formal (e) Simplistic
Q No. 20 PROTRACT
(a) Defy (b) Supplement (c) Postpone (d) Shorten (e) Design
Q No. 11 TANTAMOUNT
(a) Not negotiable (b) not equivalent (c) Not ambitious (d) Not evident (e) Not relevant
Q No. 12 ABIDE
(a) Retract an offer (b) Refuse to endure (c) Shield from harm (d) Exonerate (e) Welcome
Q No. 13 PROSPEROUS
(a) Disengage (b) Impoverished (c) Refute thoroughly (d) Answer hypothetically (e) Consider genuinely
Q No. 14 VOUCHSAFE
(a) Postpone (b) Dissemble (c) Endanger (d) Prohibit (e) Justify
Q No. 15 CAVIL
(a) Discern (b) Disclose (c) Introduce (d) Flatter (e) Commend
Q No. 16 BOORISH
(a) Juvenile (b) Well mannered (c) Weak minded (d) Unique (e) Concealed
Q No. 17 ANTITHETICAL
(a) Qualitative (b) Unnatural (c) Deceptive (d) Supportive (e) Noncommittal
Q No. 18 REVILE
(a) Compose (b) Awake (c) Deaden (d) Praise (e) Secrete
Q No. 19 DESULTORY
(a) Apologetic (b) Independent (c) Laudatory (d) Questionable (e) Methodical
Q No. 20 ASSUAGE
(a) Wane (b) Belie (c) Worsen (d) Intervene (e) Presume
Q No. 11 COMPLY
(a) Simplify (b) Strive (c) Rebel (d) Unite (e) Appreciate
Q No. 12 RETROSPECTION
(a) Introversion (b) Deliberation (c) Anticipation (d) Gregariousness (e) Equivocation
Q No. 13 HAPLESS
(a) Fortuitous (b) Fortunate (c) Fortifield (d) Forbidden (e) Forestalled
Q No. 14 PRECIPITATE
(a) Intricate (b) Devious (c) posthumous (d) Dilatory (e) Contradictory
Q No. 15 SEDULOUS
(a) Tangential (b) Rampant (c) Esoteric (d) Morose (e) Indolent
Q No. 16 HAMPER
(a) Feed (b) Animate (c) Facilitate (d) Treat lightly (e) Caution tactfully
Q No. 17 URBANE
(a) Civic (b) Remote (c) Deceptive (d) Conventional (e) Naive
Q No. 18 DISINGEOUS
(a) Naive (b) Accurate (c) Hostile (d) Witty (e) Polite
Q No. 19 TRACTABLE
(a) Incoherent (b) Advisable (c) Simplistic (d) Influential (e) Uncooperative
Q No. 20 PROPITIOUS
(a) Adjacent (b) Clandestine (c) Contentious (d) Unfavourable (e) Coy
2. Quantitative analysis:
All ques were repeated from previous years. Practice all previous years ques and you will sail through by this section only. Prepare the following ques well:
1. Standard deviation problem
2. g(0)=1 g(1)= -1 g(6)=?
3. File transfer in bucket problem
4. Aero plane with latitude and longitude problem
5. River and power cable problem
6. Orthogonal pair problem
7. Power of 2/ power of 3 problem
8. x and y values are given. Relation between them
9. Edges, faces, vertices of a cube
10. Class mark final mark problem
11. Picking odd ones out from computer terms
12. Modular, truncation, round off problem
13. Division of physics terms and finding end unit
14. Word coding
15. Largest prime number to fit in a given bit memory
3. Critical reasoning:
Go through Barron’s 12th edition mock tests for reasoning. Go through all the reasoning ques. IGNORE THEM AT YOUR OWN PERIL! Some important passages are:
Model test 1: Section5 - qns 1-4 (motorist), qns 13-16 (red and brown) Section6 - qns 1-4 (conservative,democratic), qns 8-11 (latin, sanskrit), qns 12-18 (joe,larry,ned), qns 19-22 (a causes b)
Model test 2: Section1 - qns 19-22 (wallachia and rumelia) ---i got this qn, but the names were changed as london and paris , and a,b,c etc were changed as french, italian etc.Section6 - qns 8-12 ( ashland , liverpool), qns 13-16 (spelunker) ---i got this qn, qns 17-22 (pesth) ---i got this one too
Model test 3: Section6 - qns 1-4 (all Gs are Hs)
Model test 4: Section5 - qns 8-11 (horizontal row), qns 19-22 (a,b,c cause d) Section6 - qns 8-12 (spanish, italian), qns 13-16 (all As, Bs), qns 17-22 (progressive federal party)
Model test 5: Section3 - qns8-11 (museum), qns 19-22 (A is the father) Section7- qns 1-5 (prahtu, brahtu), qns 21-25 (scurvy)
INTERVIEW-
We had just 1 combined tech and HR interview. You might have 2 rounds. For tech interview my sincere advice is that BE THOROUGH WITH YOUR BRANCH SUBJECTS! Out of the 4 computer subjects(c, c++, ds and rdbms) prepare any one thoroughly and atleast the basics of other 3.
For HR interview prepare some general ques like:
1. Tell me about yourself
2. Strength and weakness
3. Why TCS
4. Why IT (for non-stream students)
5. Where you see yourself after 5 years
6. Hobbies and interests
7. Your idol and why
INTERVIEW TIPS-
1. Dress properly
2. ALWAYS have a smile on your face
3. Be confident and enthusiastic
4. ALWAYS be polite and humble
5. NEVER bluff. If you don’t know something tell them politely
6. ALWAYS try to lead the interview
7. During tech interview, ALWAYS explain them the concept. This will also show them your communication skill.
8. NEVER EVER argue with the interviewer
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